AgilePM Sample Paper 2

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AgilePM Foundation Exam Paper

68. In order to converge on an accurate business solution AgilePM uses:

  • a) Iterative development to deliver the right solution
  • b) A refined process model for use on all projects
  • c) Incremental delivery to improve project performance
  • d) A fully experienced delivery team

69. If the AgilePM team is to ensure that the principle 'Communicate continuously and clearly' is practiced which of the following activities will it need to undertake?

  • a) Communicate informally regularly and frequently during the working day
  • b) Produce full reports and attend frequent meetings
  • c) Run daily team stand-up sessions and use facilitated workshops
  • d) Ensure that every action is documented and approved

70. Compromising any of the principles undermines AgilePM's philosophy, as together they:

  • a) Guarantee a successful project output
  • b) Contribute essential attributes to all the delivery team members
  • c) Create an environment which enables the Project Manager to be part time
  • d) Deliver a collective value that outweighs their individual benefits

71. The preparation of the Management Foundations and Timebox Plans are designed to assist the Project Manager and the AgilePM team to follow what principle?

  • a) Communicate continuously and clearly
  • b) Focus on the business need
  • c) Never compromise quality
  • d) Demonstrate control

72. The Business Analyst is responsible for facilitating a high level of ________ between team members

  • a) involvement
  • b) collaboration
  • c) input
  • d) delegation

73. The principles direct the team in the attitude they must take and the:

  • a) Approach they must take to collaboration
  • b) Mindset they must adopt in order to deliver consistently
  • c) Establishment of the timeboxing periods
  • d) Governance procedures for the project management team

74. In support of the AgilePM principle, collaborate, the Business Visionary, Business Ambassador and Business Advisor roles:

  • a) Are optional and can be deleted without compromising quality
  • b) Define and develop the product to meet the business needs of the business sponsor
  • c) Bring the appropriate subject matter experts into the project so they can contribute to the solution
  • d) Hold the Project Manager accountable for the work of the development team(s)

75. An AgilePM team needs to be ________ when monitoring and controlling progress

  • a) proactive
  • b) reactive
  • c) pragmatic
  • d) adventurous

76. The 'Collaborate' principle is worked out in an AgilePM project when which of the following is happening?

  • a) Project Managers organise teams according to a master project plan
  • b) All members of the project team involve themselves in every step of development
  • c) Members of the team are empowered to take decisions on behalf of those they represent
  • d) No-one needs to ask anything because they are provided with full details of all they have to do

77. Delivering products on time is a very desirable outcome for a project and is:

  • a) Quite often the single most important success factor
  • b) Absolutely essential for success
  • c) Likely to take second place to delivery to scope
  • d) The only criteria that matters

78. Develop 'Iteratively' is one of the AgilePM principles which is supported when which of the following actions is taken by the team?

  • a) Ensure the team deploys the longest iteration cycles possible
  • b) Build customer feedback into each iteration
  • c) Create a physical prototype for every feature to aid development
  • d) Build supplier feedback into each iteration

79. In order to deliver real business benefit early, AgilePM advocates:

  • a) Iterative development
  • b) A co-located delivery team
  • c) At team that is as large as possible
  • d) Incremental delivery

80. If the business agrees that the features in the minimum usable subset have been provided adequately, then the solution should be acceptable' is a definition of what AgilePM principle?

  • a) Focus on the business need
  • b) Communicate continuously and clearly
  • c) Demonstrate control
  • d) Never compromise quality

81. The collective value of AgilePM's principles enables organisations to do which of the following?

  • a) Deliver best value business solutions collaboratively
  • b) Trust its project team to work independently
  • c) Achieve the best return on investment
  • d) Micromanage the project at every step

82. It is essential to be in control of a project:

  • a) When reports are needed
  • b) During the start and end of a critical project
  • c) At all times
  • d) As directed by the Project Manager

83. AgilePM emphasises the value of human interaction through Stand-ups, Facilitated Workshops, clearly defined roles and user involvement. What principle is being described as being fulfilled this way?

  • a) Build incrementally from firm foundations
  • b) Never compromise quality
  • c) Communicate continuously and clearly
  • d) Demonstrate control

84. AgilePM advocates a ________ to change that relies on iteration in order to embrace change

  • a) restrained approach
  • b) bureaucratic approach
  • c) business-like approach
  • d) pragmatic approach

85. In order to fulfil the principle, deliver on time, AgilePM teams will:

  • a) Compromise on quality
  • b) Timebox the work
  • c) Treat cost as a variable
  • d) Off-set any overruns by using overtime

86. It is important to remember that a project is:

  • a) A means to an end, not an end in itself
  • b) Self-serving
  • c) To be treated as only a mechanism for delivering a business product
  • d) The most significant part of business as usual

87. To practice the principle 'Focus on the business need' means the team will do which of the following?

  • a) Guarantee the Minimum Usable Subset
  • b) Deliver to the full specification agreed up front
  • c) Produce a valuable product which may require more time to complete
  • d) Consult with the sponsor at each development step to ensure compliance

88. Which of the following should an AgilePM team do if they are upholding the 'Never compromise quality' principle?

  • a) Only attempt what can be achieved in the limited time available
  • b) Provide the customer with a statement of what has been done during deployment
  • c) Use only top level components to develop the product
  • d) Design, document and test appropriately

89. Techniques such as Timeboxing and MoSCoW Prioritisation enable AgilePM teams to implement what principle?

  • a) Build incrementally from firm foundations
  • b) Deliver on time
  • c) Develop Iteratively
  • d) Focus on the business need

90. If an AgilePM team is seeking continuous business sponsorship and commitment which principle is it upholding?

  • a) Focus on the business need
  • b) Never compromise quality
  • c) Communicate continuously and clearly
  • d) Demonstrate control

91. Managing proactively is one way of ensuring that control is demonstrated. Which of the following is another way of upholding that principle?

  • a) Involve every team member in developing the project plan
  • b) Measure progress through a focus on completed activities
  • c) Providing the customer with regular and routine reports
  • d) Make plans and progress visible to all

92. When AgilePM advocates a pragmatic approach to change what principle is behind the statement?

  • a) Demonstrate control
  • b) Develop Iteratively
  • c) Focus on the business need
  • d) Communicate continuously and clearly

93. In line with the fifth and sixth principles, the AgilePM lifecycle is both:

  • a) Iterative and incremental
  • b) Developmental and worthwhile
  • c) Iterative and integrative
  • d) Process driven and incremental

94. The AgilePM lifecycle can be configured for:

  • a) Risky projects
  • b) Hardware projects
  • c) Small projects
  • d) Software projects

95. Once the lifecycle has been configured, the team structures have been refined and key products given more emphasis is it appropriate in larger projects to introduce additional management products?

  • a) No, because AgilePM restricts management products to those it defines
  • b) Yes, because they would inappropriate for smaller projects
  • c) No, because they would need to be developed using the Engineering phase
  • d) Yes, because corporate management has the right to impose any necessary management product

96. What AgilePM phase has the objective of expanding and refining any products required to successfully operate and support the solution in live operation?

  • a) Engineering
  • b) Exploration
  • c) Deployment
  • d) Foundations

97. Increments are in turn divided into:

  • a) Iteration phases
  • b) Development Timeboxes
  • c) Deployed features
  • d) Daily Stand-Ups

98. AgilePM provides what type of framework consisting of seven lifecycle phases?

  • a) Fixed and repetitive
  • b) Open and challenging
  • c) Iterative and definitive
  • d) Iterative and incremental

99. The project / programme characteristics must be taken into consideration in order to configure the optimum lifecycle for delivery of:

  • a) The Minimum Usable Subset
  • b) The most advanced product possible
  • c) User training and maintenance support
  • d) Early business benefit and risk mitigation

100. What phase in the AgilePM lifecycle has an objective of baselining the high-level requirements for the project and describing their priority and relevance to the business need?

  • a) Pre-Project
  • b) Engineering
  • c) Deployment
  • d) Foundations

101. The project / programme characteristics must be taken into consideration in order to configure the ________ early business benefit and risk mitigation

  • a) best option for the production of
  • b) ultimate product for the recovery of
  • c) development management team for the recovery of
  • d) optimum lifecycle for delivery of

102. The primary purpose of the Deployment phase is to:

  • a) Refine the specification for the solution
  • b) Deliver the proposed return on investment
  • c) Get the solution into live / production use
  • d) Test the product before the Engineering phase can be completed

103. If there is a need to generate versions of the full solution as early as possible in order to prove viability of the solution and/or properly plan for deployment which aspect of configuring the Lifecycle may be useful?

  • a) Using very short Timeboxes with unlimited resources
  • b) Deploying each feature as developed to gain early user feedback
  • c) Separating the project into two work streams with two Project Managers
  • d) The use of multiple teams with Exploration and Engineering work split between them

104. The work of the pre-project phase simply formalises a proposal for a project and places it:

  • a) In a ranked priority against business as usual work
  • b) In the context of other potential work to be carried out by the organisation
  • c) In a backlog of work to be done when development teams have completed their current workload
  • d) Alongside other work to be undertaken so that resources can be assigned on a 'must needs' basis

105. The focus of a Development Timebox may reflect:

  • a) A single development phase
  • b) Multiple projects
  • c) The development of at least two 'must have' features
  • d) The development of the project plan

106. The primary purpose of what AgilePM lifecycle phase is to get the solution into live use?

  • a) Post-Project phase
  • b) Deployment phase
  • c) Engineering phase
  • d) Pre-Project phase

107. Scalability is a:

  • a) Significant problem for the lifecycle
  • b) Key attribute of AgilePM
  • c) Function which should not be used
  • d) Primary capability which must always be employed

108. Combining Exploration and Engineering work to deliver fully engineered subsets of the end product in a single pass is recommended for which of the following reasons?

  • a) The preference of the Project Manager
  • b) The project is too small to warrant separation of the phases
  • c) The architectural risk associated with development is very high
  • d) The solution is too complex to separate the two phase

109. The Exploration phase is used to iteratively and incrementally investigate detailed business requirements and:

  • a) Translate them into a viable solution
  • b) Turn the prototype into a workable solution
  • c) Handle all deployment options for return on investment
  • d) Hand over to the Engineering phase to produce a full specification for further development

110. Which is an objective of the Pre-Project phase?

  • a) To propose a full list of deliverables
  • b) To identify a Business Sponsor and Business Visionary
  • c) To confirm that the business strategy is in line with the project
  • d) To appoint the full development team

111. The end-product of what phase in the AgilePM lifecycle will be refined further during the Engineering phase to ensure technical acceptance criteria such as performance, capacity, security, supportability and maintainability are met?

  • a) Engineering
  • b) Post-Project
  • c) Deployment
  • d) Exploration

112. The ________ enables agreement that the project can move safely from one lifecycle phase to another

  • a) acceptance of products
  • b) deployment of features
  • c) approval of reports
  • d) certification of quality

113. The Post-Project phase takes place after the last planned deployment of the solution and its purpose is to reflect on the performance of the project in terms of the:

  • a) Uptime of the product in production use
  • b) Proposed lifetime of the solution
  • c) Ability of the users to operate the product delivered
  • d) Business value actually achieved

114. When the project is within the environment of a large business organisation it is important that it recognises and works with which of the following?

  • a) Local recommendations
  • b) Business as usual practices
  • c) Corporate governance
  • d) Tight timelines

115. If a project is assessed to be simple, low-risk and of short duration which of the following options correctly represents how the Lifecycle may be used?

  • a) The Feasibility phase and the Foundations phase must be used in sequence
  • b) The Feasibility phase may be omitted
  • c) The Foundations phase may be omitted
  • d) The Feasibility phase and the Foundations phase may be combined

116. To assess whether the benefits described in the Business Case have actually been achieved is the objective of what AgilePM phase?

  • a) Deployment
  • b) Pre-Project
  • c) Post-Project
  • d) Exploration

117. Once the lifecycle has been configured, the team structures can be refined:

  • a) To support multiple teams
  • b) In support of corporate management requirements
  • c) In line with strategic objectives
  • d) To accommodate situations where there is no Project Manager

118. What phase in the AgilePM lifecycle provides the first opportunity for deciding whether a proposed project is viable from both a business and a technical perspective?

  • a) Deployment
  • b) Foundations
  • c) Feasibility
  • d) Post-Project

119. AgilePM recognises the need for which of the following whilst acknowledging and accepting the advantages and constraints of working in a substantial corporate environment?

  • a) Rigidity
  • b) Flexibility
  • c) Agility
  • d) Accountability

120. Development effort in the Engineering phase is focused primarily on addressing:

  • a) Functional requirements
  • b) Non-functional requirements
  • c) Final features
  • d) What high level features will be left out of the deployed solution

121. Which statement correctly expresses the possibility for using more than one development team?

  • a) One team may concentrate on exploratory work and the other on engineering work
  • b) The AgilePM Lifecycle is not configurable for multiple teams
  • c) For AgilePM to be successful there must always be at least three development teams within the project
  • d) The deliverable solution will be compromised if two teams undertake different parts of the


122. The iterative nature of AgilePM enables ________ to see work under construction, comment on it and request changes during the development of an increment of the solution

  • a) feature developers
  • b) business representatives
  • c) the Project Manager
  • d) potential users

123. How many phases does AgilePM propose?

  • a) 7
  • b) 5
  • c) 8
  • d) 2

124. What does AgilePM say should provide a focus for a single development phase?

  • a) Engineering phase
  • b) Deployment
  • c) Development Timebox
  • d) Features development

125. Which of the following statements correctly represents the possibilities for configuring the AgilePM lifecycle?

  • a) Small projects to large enterprise-wide programmes
  • b) Information technology projects only regardless of size
  • c) Any project which does not include any information technology products
  • d) Projects where time can be used as contingency

126. Once the Pre-Project activity has been completed, typically AgilePM projects begin with:

  • a) A Deployment phase followed by a Post-Project phase
  • b) An Exploration phase followed by an Engineering phase
  • c) A Feasibility phase followed by a Foundations phase
  • d) A Foundations phase followed by an Engineering phase

127. Actual development work is divided into one or more increments, which normally end with the:

  • a) Engineering of the product into a workable solution
  • b) Post-Project evaluation of the benefits
  • c) Pre-Project instruction to commence another project
  • d) Deployment of a working solution into the live environment

128. The Feasibility phase provides the first opportunity for deciding:

  • a) If the organisation should require a project to be started
  • b) On the detailed costs for the delivery of the solution to the business problem
  • c) Whether a proposed project is viable
  • d) When the deployments will be made

129. In establishing the foundations, the 3 essential perspectives of business, solution and management need to be combined to provide:

  • a) The maximum possible governance
  • b) An AgilePM Lifecycle that ensures on time delivery
  • c) All the skills necessary for operating the deployed solution
  • d) A clear project focus that is both robust and flexible

130. If instrumental success factors (ICFs) of AgilePM projects cannot be met, this presents:

  • a) A risk to the AgilePM approach
  • b) The best chance of success
  • c) An unacceptable business case
  • d) An opportunity for the development team to be creative

131. The Deployment phase places the solution created in an increment into:

  • a) The next Engineering phase
  • b) Operational use
  • c) Final test
  • d) The hands of users for training

132. The Business Area Definition (BAD) should be created for any project where the proposed solution impacts on which of the following?

  • a) Regulatory approval
  • b) Technical Architecture
  • c) Product testing
  • d) Business as usual

133. It is important that the Business Sponsor / senior management understands and accepts the:

  • a) Business rationale for the programme
  • b) AgilePM philosophy
  • c) AgilePM Lifecycle
  • d) Delivery of the full product as the only option

134. The senior business management must agree to delegate decision-making to the:

  • a) Project Manager as part of the Solution Development Team (SDT)
  • b) Business Advisor and Team Leader
  • c) Business Ambassador(s) in the Solution Development Team (SDT)
  • d) Whole Solution Development Team (SDT)

135. What AgilePM phase has the objective of scoping, planning and resourcing the Feasibility phase?

  • a) Foundations
  • b) Post-Project
  • c) Engineering
  • d) Pre-Project

136. The Delivery Plan refines and elaborates on the schedule described in which other management product?

  • a) Project Plan
  • b) Outline Plan
  • c) Timebox Plan
  • d) Project Approach Questionnaire (PAQ)

137. What AgilePM Lifecycle phase is used to describe the organisation and governance aspects of the project?

  • a) Feasibility
  • b) Foundations
  • c) Exploration
  • d) Engineering

138. The Delivery Control Pack comprises ________ related to the ongoing status of the project

  • a) instructions to the project team
  • b) all updated plans
  • c) reports, documents and logs
  • d) information from external sources

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