AgilePM Sample Paper 3

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AgilePM Foundation Exam Paper

139.To achieve an early return on investment, the organisation needs to be amenable to the:

  • a) Incremental delivery of solutions
  • b) Easiest features being developed first of all
  • c) Whole solution being engineered in one iteration
  • d) Financial Advisor being instrumental in product development


140. AgilePM identifies deliverables associated with each phase of the lifecycle. These are referred to as:

  • a) Solutions
  • b) Outcomes
  • c) Benefits
  • d) Products


141. To improve the performance of the Solution Development Team (SDT) specialists may be called in as long as the:

  • a) Project Manager does not change
  • b) Core team remains stable
  • c) Risk is acceptable
  • d) Team does not have more than ten members


142. When necessary, which phase will be used to evolve the Business Area Definition (BAD) and System Architecture Definition (SAD) products into models that describe how the solution works and how it supports all impacted business processes and systems?

  • a) Foundations
  • b) Deployment
  • c) Exploration
  • d) Post-Project


143. The formal product definitions are:

  • a) Strategic
  • b) Generic
  • c) Templates
  • d) Definitive


144. The Outline Plan is refined and replaced by the Delivery Plan for the project which in turn is refined to create the individual:

  • a) Delivery Plans
  • b) Phase plans
  • c) Timebox Plans
  • d) Integration Timeboxes


145. For which AgilePM Lifecycle phase is it a precondition that the Evolving Solution from the Exploration phase has been approved?

  • a) Deployment
  • b) Foundations
  • c) Pre-Project
  • d) Engineering


146. AgilePM teams rely on rich communication as their first choice. For this to be effective what is the optimum size of Solution Development Team (SDT) suggested by AgilePM?

  • a) No more than fifteen and not less than twelve
  • b) At least six
  • c) Three groups of seven
  • d) Five to nine


147. The primary aim of the Terms of Reference (ToR) is to:

  • a) Scope and justify the feasibility investigation
  • b) Define the solution to be developed
  • c) Propose how only the Post-Project phase will be undertaken
  • d) Refine the makeup of the Solution Development Team (SDT)


148. What is the name of the simple management product AgilePM provides that helps to identify and confirm the level of achievement of all the relevant factors and to assess potential risk areas to be addressed?

  • a) Project Approach Questionnaire
  • b) Programme Approach Questionnaire
  • c) Project Plan
  • d) Project Awareness Questionnaire


149. The number of passes through the Deployment phase will depend on whether it is sensible and feasible for the ________ to accept delivery of the overall solution incrementally

  • a) business
  • b) Solution Development Team (SDT)
  • c) Technical Architect
  • d) Business Sponsor


150. AgilePM integrates a project management lifecycle and a product development lifecycle into a:

  • a) Simple framework
  • b) Single framework
  • c) Single project management method
  • d) Framework which needs no modification


151. The Outline plan provides an overview of the project from a Project Management and:

  • a) The corporate point of view
  • b) Benefits recovery viewpoint
  • c) Product testing
  • d) Solution Delivery perspective


152. If having a common understanding of what needs to be in place is a good starting point for any project then agreeing what else increases the likelihood of a successful AgilePM project?

  • a) The specification of the solution to be developed
  • b) The optimum starting position for an AgilePM project
  • c) The characteristics of the Solution Development Team (SDT)
  • d) The degree to which cost and quality can be used to off-set variances in time


153. If a Solution Development Team (SDT) with diverse skills is to function as a coherent unit what capability should all team members have?

  • a) Expert technical knowledge of the solution being developed
  • b) Management experience
  • c) Good communication skills
  • d) Knowledge of the regulatory requirements which have to be met


154. For most organisations, AgilePM is all that is needed, although some gain value from integrating AgilePM with project management methods, such as:

  • a) Programme management
  • b) Business as usual
  • c) PRINCE2 and PMI
  • d) Corporate strategic development approach


155. When the Business Vision has been evolved from the Feasibility Assessment which of the following should it clearly describe?

  • a) The business as it will be after each iteration
  • b) How the big picture differs from the current reality
  • c) Who will be the Business Ambassador
  • d) The responsibilities of the Project Manager


156. In order to deliver the right thing at the right time and handle change dynamically which of the following statement represents what needs to be agreed by all parties?

  • a) The project may deliver more than 100% of the possible solution
  • b) The project may not deliver less than 100% of the possible solution
  • c) The project will deliver 100% of the possible solution
  • d) The project may deliver less than 100% of the possible solution


157. During the Exploration phase, all or part of the problem or opportunity is investigated:

  • a) And a partial solution is created
  • b) But only a detailed specification will be produced
  • c) Together with a full set of test protocols
  • d) And the full solution developed to production standard


158. The Prioritised Requirements List (PRL) describes, at a high level, which of the following?

  • a) The requirements which can safely be left out of the delivered solution
  • b) A breakdown of the detail of the cost and time to deliver the required features
  • c) The requirements that the project needs to address if the Business Case is to be met
  • d) A list of the features which the suppliers believe they can deliver


159. Where a decision is ________ the agreed boundaries this would still need to be formally escalated

  • a) outside
  • b) inside
  • c) within
  • d) at the level of


160. What happens after the project has delivered the solution to the business problem or opportunity?

  • a) The next Timebox comes into play
  • b) The project team is retained for maintenance purposes
  • c) The project team is disbanded and the Post-Project phase comes into play
  • d) Nothing further needs to happen


161. The Solution Prototype may be which of the following?

  • a) Disposable
  • b) Enduring
  • c) Inaccurate
  • d) Deployable


162. The level of business commitment for this project should be:

  • a) Left to the discretion of the Project Manager
  • b) Minimal to prevent micromanagement
  • c) Set at the optimum level for full benefits recovery
  • d) Quantified and discussed in the early stages


163. Detailing the Business Case for the project is an aspect of the work of what phase of the AgilePM Lifecycle?

  • a) Pre-Project
  • b) Foundations
  • c) Feasibility
  • d) Deployment


164. The Pareto Principle (or 80:20 rule) implies that it is possible that ________ might be enabled by an early interim delivery

  • a) all the proposed benefit
  • b) some of the users
  • c) none of the risks
  • d) the vast majority of the benefit


165. The Business Foundations product provides information for and/or about the business that is fundamental to the success of the project and needs to be understood by which of the following?

  • a) All project stakeholders
  • b) The Solution Development Team (SDT)
  • c) All Team Leaders across the organisation
  • d) The corporate finance team


166. Choosing AgilePM for a project management method means that the entire project will be driven by which project parameter?

  • a) Delivering to full scope
  • b) Providing a solution which will be of highest quality
  • c) Ensuring on-time delivery
  • d) Developing a solution to the 'can do1 philosophy


167. Since AgilePM is typically used for creating solutions that are required quickly, Feasibility and Foundations should last no more than:

  • a) A few hours
  • b) A few months
  • c) Two or three days
  • d) A few weeks


168. Which role in AgilePM has Ability to commit appropriate funds and resources?

  • a) Teal Leader
  • b) Business Sponsor
  • c) Solution Developer
  • d) Solution Tester


169. Which role in AgilePM approves changes to the high-level requirements in the Prioritised Requirements List (PRL)?

  • a) Teal Leader
  • b) Business Sponsor
  • c) Business Visionary
  • d) Business Analyst


170. Which role in AgilePM manages the overall configuration of the project?

  • a) Technical Coordinator
  • b) Technical Advisor
  • c) Project Manager
  • d) Business Analyst


171. Which role in AgilePM manages business involvement within the Solution Development Teams (SDTs)?

  • a) Business Visionary
  • b) Workshop Facilitator
  • c) Business Analyst
  • d) Project Manager


172. Which role in AgilePM does high-level project planning and scheduling, but not detailed task planning?

  • a) Business Visionary
  • b) DSDM Coach
  • c) Project Manager
  • d) Teal Leader


173. Which role in AgilePM determines the technical environments?

  • a) Technical Coordinator
  • b) DSDM Coach
  • c) Project Manager
  • d) Teal Leader


174. Which role in AgilePM resolves technical differences between technical team members?

  • a) Technical Advisor
  • b) Technical Coordinator
  • c) Solution Developer
  • d) Business Ambassador


175. Which role in AgilePM ensures adherence to standards of best practice?

  • a) Technical Advisor
  • b) Solution Developer
  • c) Solution Tester
  • d) Technical Coordinator


176. Which role in AgilePM ensures team functions as a whole and meets objectives?

  • a) Technical Advisor
  • b) DSDM Coach
  • c) Team Leader
  • d) Technical Coordinator


177. Which role in AgilePM provides key input to business requirements and design sessions?

  • a) Technical Advisor
  • b) Business Visionary
  • c) Team Leader
  • d) Business Ambassador


178. Which role in AgilePM manages workshop process?

  • a) DSDM Coach
  • b) Business Visionary
  • c) Team Leader
  • d) Workshop Facilitator


179. People working together effectively are the foundation of:

  • a) Any successful project
  • b) A worthwhile solution
  • c) Achieving the proposed return on investment
  • d) A collaborative development team


180. The Project Manager role is responsible for:

  • a) Developing the solution
  • b) Giving clear and detailed technical direction to the development team
  • c) Designing the test routines for the deliverable solution
  • d) All aspects of the delivery of the solution


181. On an AgilePM project team which role is the most senior project-level business role?

  • a) The Business Visionary
  • b) The Business Sponsor
  • c) The Project Manager
  • d) The Technical Coordinator


182. In the AgilePM team model the Business Sponsor is responsible for which function(s)?

  • a) Detailed features requirements setting
  • b) How the solution will work viewed from the user perspective
  • c) Overall strategic direction and funding
  • d) Design and testing of the solution


183. The ________ supports the Solution Development Team (SDT) through the provision of detailed and often specialist technical input

  • a) Solution Tester
  • b) DSDM Coach
  • c) Line Manager
  • d) Technical Advisor


184. Which role in an AgilePM project team is said to provide the glue that holds the project together?

  • a) Technical Coordinator
  • b) DSDM Coach
  • c) Project Manager
  • d) Workshop Facilitator


185. The Business Sponsor must hold a sufficiently high position in the organisation to be able to:

  • a) Make business decisions on behalf of the project
  • b) Resolve business issues
  • c) Address all risks facing the project
  • d) Commit to the Prioritised Requirements List


186. The ________ ensures that the business needs are properly analysed and are correctly reflected in the guidance the team needs to generate the solution?

  • a) Team Leader
  • b) Business Sponsor
  • c) Project Manager
  • d) Business Analyst


187. The Technical Coordinator performs the same function, from a technical perspective, as the Business Visionary does from a:

  • a) Business perspective
  • b) Organisation perspective
  • c) Corporate perspective
  • d) Delivery team perspective


188. AgilePM assigns clear roles and responsibilities to each person in a project but from which side of the project should such people be recruited to the roles?

  • a) Only from the 'customer' side of the project
  • b) From the 'customer' and 'supplier' side of the project
  • c) Only 'supplier' sided people are needed for the Solution Development Team (SDT)
  • d) Only from the 'business' side of the project


189. Which role is responsible for providing technical advice about the development of support documentation?

  • a) Solution Tester
  • b) Solution Developer
  • c) Technical Advisor
  • d) Team Leader


190. The Business Ambassador generally comes from:

  • a) Anywhere in the business
  • b) A financial background
  • c) The highest level of management within the business
  • d) The business area being addressed


191. The Solution Development Team (SDT) on an AgilePM project is empowered to make decisions on a day-to-day basis:

  • a) In consultation with the Project Manager
  • b) Within their agreed Terms of Reference (ToR)
  • c) Provided they meet all their Timebox objectives
  • d) Even if they breach technical requirements


192. The Solution Tester should be fully integrated with the Solution Development Team (SDT) and tests the solution in accordance with what management product?

  • a) Project Plan
  • b) Project Test Plan
  • c) Technical Testing Strategy
  • d) Generic Testing Protocols


193. Specialist roles may also need to be involved and brought into the Solution Development Teams (SDTs) on an ad hoc basis by the:

  • a) Project Manager or Team Leader
  • b) Team Leader and Technical Coordinator
  • c) Business Sponsor and Project Manager
  • d) Anyone with an interest in the project


194. Which role is key to helping a team with limited experience of using AgilePM get the most out of the approach within the context of the wider organisation in which they work?

  • a) Team Leader
  • b) DSDM Coach
  • c) Business Visionary
  • d) Project Manager


195. It is vital that the Project Manager takes responsibility throughout the duration of the project. This must include:

  • a) All technical decisions on the solution architecture
  • b) Ensuring that all funding is available before any work starts on product development
  • c) Coaching sessions for everyone involved with the project
  • d) Both business and technical delivery aspects of the project


196. The solution / technical interests are represented by a number of roles. Which of the following roles is one of them?

  • a) Solution Tester
  • b) Project Manager
  • c) Business Advisor
  • d) DSDM Coach


197. The Business Advisor will normally be ________ but may for example, simply provide legal or regulatory advice with which the solution must comply

  • a) the detail designer of the solution to be produced
  • b) someone from the senior management level of the business sponsoring the project
  • c) able to fully test the solution for conformity to business needs
  • d) an intended user or beneficiary of the solution


198. The Business Sponsor is the:

  • a) Project Sponsor
  • b) Project Champion
  • c) User group manager
  • d) Team Leader


199. Which role in an AgilePM project team is responsible for managing the overall configuration of the project?

  • a) Technical Coordinator
  • b) Team Leader
  • c) Solution Developer
  • d) Project Manager


200. The Development roles are Team Leader, Business Ambassador, Business Analyst, Solution Developer and Solution Tester. AgilePM refers to this team jointly as which of the following?

  • a) The 'doers' of the project
  • b) Those who will justify the work
  • c) A random group of technical specialists
  • d) The engine room of the project


201. A person assuming a Solution Developer role should ideally be allocated to the project on what basis?

  • a) From a consultancy background
  • b) Full time for the work they will do on the project
  • c) For the duration of a single development Timebox
  • d) From a senior management level within the business


202. As the project's technical design authority, the Technical Coordinator ensures that the Solution Development Teams (SDTs) work in a consistent way, that the project is technically coherent and meets the:

  • a) Desired technical quality standards
  • b) Demands set out by the users
  • c) Full business benefits
  • d) Customer's quality expectations


203. The Technical Advisor supports the Solution Development Team (SDT) through the provision of detailed and often specialist technical input and advice with regards to ________:

  • a) Assurance that the solution is evolving correctly
  • b) Confirmation that the benefits will be achieved
  • c) Compliance with Corporate standards
  • d) Compliance with Regulatory standards


204. Which role is a leadership role rather than a management role and the person holding it will ideally be elected by his or her peers?

  • a) Solution Tester
  • b) Team Leader
  • c) Solution Developer
  • d) Project Manager


205. Which role in an AgilePM project team acts as a final arbiter of any disagreements between team members?

  • a) Team Leader
  • b) Technical Coordinator
  • c) Business Visionary
  • d) Project Manager


206. The DSDM Coach should ideally be:

  • a) The Project Manager
  • b) An external consultant
  • c) An experienced Team Leader who can also act as Project Manager
  • d) Certified as a DSDM Coach to ensure competence to fulfil this role has been independently validated


207. The Business Visionary remains involved throughout the project providing the team with strategic direction and ensuring that the solution delivered will:

  • a) Be able to be used by the receiving community
  • b) Have been developed to the highest possible standard
  • c) Enable the benefits described in the Business Case to be achieved
  • d) Comply with all technical requirements


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