AgilePM Sample Paper 5

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AgilePM Foundation Exam Paper

271. At the lowest level of detail, there will be a point where the requirement does not need to be written down, rather it is simply evolved with input from the:

  • a) Business Ambassador
  • b) Business Advisor
  • c) Team Leader
  • d) Solution Developer


272. Learning always occurs as a project progresses through the different AgilePM phases so any attempt to freeze the scope will usually mean which of the following will occur?

  • a) Solution Development Teams (SDTs) will have to start work on a new project
  • b) The project may miss many of the stakeholders' key requirements
  • c) The Solution Tester may not know what to do
  • d) The project may not be given authority to start development


273. Solution Testers will report to the Technical Coordinator about the solution's:

  • a) Conformity to architecture
  • b) Technical quality
  • c) Feasibility
  • d) Value for money


274. The AgilePM approach to requirements involves establishing the requirements at a high level during the Feasibility and Foundations Phases and agreeing them with which particular role?

  • a) Business Sponsor
  • b) Project Manager
  • c) Business Visionary
  • d) Team Leader


275. Estimates need to include a level of contingency to allow for which of the following?

  • a) Poor estimating
  • b) Planning to a very low level
  • c) The pessimism of some developers
  • d) Risks associated with unknown factors


276. An objective of ________ is to train the end users of the solution and/or provide necessary documentation to support the live operation of the solution in the business environment

  • a) Deployment
  • b) Post-Project
  • c) Engineering
  • d) Exploration


277. The Business Visionary remains involved throughout the project providing the team with:

  • a) Programme guidance
  • b) Strategic direction
  • c) Technical decision making
  • d) User requirements


278. If by the end of Foundations the requirements have been baselined can they be changed at all thereafter?

  • a) Yes, provided the change is under control
  • b) No, it is now fixed for the duration of the project
  • c) Yes, with the agreement of the Technical Author
  • d) No, since product may have already been produced


279. AgilePM specifies Business roles to identify who is responsible for defining, agreeing and:

  • a) Testing products
  • b) Approving the Deployable Solution
  • c) Prioritising requirements
  • d) Managing the team


280. The aim of the Foundations phase is to create a high-level but sound view of which of the following?

  • a) Whether there is a feasible solution to the business problem
  • b) The full detail of the business need
  • c) The business and technical aspects of the project
  • d) Whether the benefits in the Business Case have been achieved


281. The Business Analyst has two major responsibilities. One is to ensures that the business needs are properly analysed; what is the second?

  • a) To define the solution that will fulfil the business needs
  • b) Identification of the users and those who will maintain the product
  • c) Final approval of the developed solution
  • d) That business needs are correctly reflected in the guidance the team needs


282. The total business value is stated in the ________ and may be broken down into different elements

  • a) Project Timebox Plan
  • b) Prioritised Requirements List
  • c) Business Case
  • d) Project Approach Questionnaire (PAQ)


283. Measurement is a powerful tool to help deliver projects successfully - using appropriate measures improves:

  • a) Understanding and control
  • b) Uncertainty
  • c) The Prioritised Requirements List
  • d) The Project Manager's performance


284. Understanding the number of defects within a project is an aspect of quality which can be useful for the Project Manager and Team Leader to measure which function?

  • a) Morale
  • b) Features completed
  • c) Progress
  • d) Overtime needed


285. If evolving the solution according to the actual business need is critically important which activity would AgilePM propose to meet that need?

  • a) Using the AgilePM Lifecycle as given in the manual
  • b) Modelling and prototyping
  • c) Appointing senior management as one of the Solution Testers
  • d) Increasing the time and cost as necessary


286. The team has the authority to de-scope Should Have or Could Have requirements, by agreement of the team, including Solution Developers and:

  • a) Project Manager
  • b) Business Advisor
  • c) Business Ambassadors
  • d) Team Leader


287. The Business Sponsor must hold a sufficiently high position in the organisation to be able to resolve business issues (e.g. to force open closed doors) and make:

  • a) Scheduling decisions
  • b) Organisational decisions
  • c) Programming decisions
  • d) Financial decisions


288. Teams should get an estimate from an expert - someone who has done this before, but should not allow this to:

  • a) Be cast in concrete
  • b) Become a commitment on spend too soon
  • c) Be modified by the Business Sponsor
  • d) Override the estimate of the person doing the work


289. In AgilePM, the quality of an AgilePM solution is judged on whether it contains:

  • a) Enough Must Haves for it to be judged worth having
  • b) At least the Minimum Usable Subset
  • c) Everything in the Prioritised Requirements List
  • d) All the users asked for


290. Lowering the Solution Quality acceptance standard just to meet the deadline or budget'

  • a) Perfectly acceptable
  • b) What AgilePM is about
  • c) Acceptable when all else fails
  • d) Not an option


291. Solution Development Teams (SDTs) should obtain estimates from a range of different people and not allow what to dissuade them from estimates which may be higher than normal?

  • a) Peer review
  • b) Management compulsion
  • c) User input
  • d) Peer pressure


292. Continued involvement from the Business representatives during which phase provides an ongoing opportunity to validate fitness for business purpose from a functional perspective?

  • a) Exploration
  • b) Deployment
  • c) Engineering
  • d) Post-Project


293. If engagement with the wider group of users and stakeholders is needed when an AgilePM project is underway which of the following would be of assistance?

  • a) Detailed reports on a regular basis
  • b) Weekly project progress meetings
  • c) MoSCoW prioritisation
  • d) Facilitated workshops


294. What role co-ordinates all aspects of management of the project at a high level?

  • a) Business Sponsor
  • b) Senior management
  • c) Team Leader
  • d) Project Manager


295. To which role does the Team Leader report?

  • a) Technical Coordinator
  • b) Project Manager
  • c) Business Ambassador
  • d) Business Sponsor


296. Is AgilePM recognised as an appropriate approach for ISO 9001 accreditation?

  • a) No
  • b) Yes
  • c) Only if accompanied by another acceptable project management method
  • d) Only if the Project Manager is properly qualified


297. The primary reason for measuring business value is to:

  • a) Add value to the business
  • b) Improve on previous iterations of development
  • c) Demonstrate progress and return on investment
  • d) Change estimates to coincide with actual values


298. The Foundations phase is aimed at establishing firm and enduring foundations for the project. In establishing the foundations, the three essential perspectives of:

  • a) Business, solution and management need to be combined
  • b) Organisation, procurement and sales have to be considered
  • c) Regulatory bodies, management and solution ought to be thought through
  • d) Defining, delivering and testing must be approved


299. That all required project personnel and stakeholders are engaged as necessary is a preconditions for moving out of which AgilePM phase?

  • a) Foundations
  • b) P re-Project
  • c) Engineering
  • d) Exploration


300. The Development Timebox Plan is based on estimates created at the task level, therefore, which of the following statements is correct?

  • a) The level of uncertainty is lower and the accuracy higher
  • b) The level of uncertainty is higher and the accuracy lower
  • c) The level of uncertainty and accuracy remain unchanged
  • d) The development team need to take direction from the Project Manger


301. Why does AgilePM's use of Development Timeboxes eliminate the risk of the project not achieving final sign-off?

  • a) An evolved solution is always better than a pre-defined solution
  • b) The Business Ambassador was part of the development team
  • c) The Solution Tester confirms that all the requirements have been fully met
  • d) The business accepts the evolving solution incrementally


302. Features are flexible but within the constraints of delivering at least the minimum acceptable level of:

  • a) Success
  • b) Business benefit
  • c) Participation
  • d) Return on investment


303. When considering risk in an Agile project it is usually appropriate to run a ________ workshop early on in the project but the same technique can be used at any appropriate time

  • a) Timebox Workshop
  • b) Facilitated Workshop
  • c) Risk Mitigation
  • d) Risk Analysis


304. What type of approach does AgilePM take to planning which results in creating a detailed plan for the next phase and an approximation for the later steps?

  • a) Evolutionary
  • b) Activity based
  • c) Evolving
  • d) Estimating


305. In an AgilePM project, the Timebox deadline is sacrosanct, often because it is set by the:

  • a) Project Manager
  • b) Business Ambassador
  • c) Business need
  • d) Regulatory authority


306. A typical Outline Plan will plan the next few weeks (the Foundations) in detail, provide an outline for the first increment and:

  • a) List the planned dates for deployment of later increments
  • b) Recommend a set of benefits recovery dates
  • c) Indicate when the follow-on upgrade project will begin
  • d) Show all non-working days


307. Burn Down charts and Burn Up charts are also useful for visibly demonstrating the current status and the:

  • a) Proposed conclusion
  • b) Forecast deviation
  • c) Projected outcome
  • d) Standard deviation


308. AgilePM's approach is based around the idea that Time, Cost and Quality are fixed and contingency is built around the prioritisation of Features. If the business need all features to be delivered what should happen?

  • a) The project can continue as planned with Must Haves being rated as 100%
  • b) The project should be stopped immediately
  • c) Regulatory authorities should be consulted
  • d) Contingency must be built in to Time and/or Cost instead.


309. Adding resource to a project that is struggling very rarely helps and can adversely affect performance. What reason does AgilePM give for this advice?

  • a) They get in each other's way
  • b) The resources who have been delivering take time out to bring newcomers up to speed
  • c) New resources are prone to re-defining the Prioritised Requirements List
  • d) The resources who have been delivering become demoralised by the addition of fresh resources


310. People who take on which particular role are likely to be new to the development team and need to be integrated quickly to get the most effective work from the team as a whole?

  • a) Team Leader
  • b) Business Sponsor
  • c) Business Ambassador
  • d) Solution Tester


311. It is the responsibility of the Project Manager to ensure that collaboration is:

  • a) Maintained
  • b) Upheld
  • c) Effective
  • d) Withheld


312. In AgilePM, business users and solution developers collaborate to produce a solution that both meets the business need and is maintainable. This requires a change of style for those Project Managers who are used to:

  • a) Being very relaxed about what the suppliers do
  • b) Controlling their developers tightly
  • c) Allowing Team Leaders to do their own planning
  • d) Micromanaging every aspect of the entire project


313. If Timeboxes are not delivering as many features as anticipated there is a potential consequence that the project will deliver all the MUSTs but not all the Should and Could requirements. Is this acceptable?

  • a) Yes, the customer is not expecting any Should or Could features
  • b) Yes, this is in line with the AgilePM approach
  • c) No, at least 90% of all Should Have features must be delivered
  • d) No, AgilePM does not accept this situation as being right


314. Determining the business benefit that will result from a given project is a very important early step:

  • a) Towards a successful project outcome
  • b) In ensuring a sound project
  • c) In gaining a Project Champion as early as possible
  • d) For defining the users


315. What AgilePM management product created during the Feasibility phase and then revisited during Foundations helps to identify potential risk areas?

  • a) Outline Plan
  • b) Terms of Reference (ToR)
  • c) Risk Log
  • d) Project Approach Questionnaire (PAQ)


316. Initial planning and prioritisation should set the percentage of Musts at about what level?

  • a) 0.8
  • b) 0.6
  • c) 0.4
  • d) 0.2


317. Which of these following aspects of an AgilePM project is an informal but planned communication process?

  • a) Weekly Stand-up
  • b) Close-out meeting
  • c) Daily Stand-Up
  • d) Timeboxes


318. Which roles does AgilePM propose should use collaborative techniques, such as Facilitated Workshops, for planning?

  • a) Project Managers and Team Leaders
  • b) Technical Coordinators and Project Managers
  • c) Solution Developers and Solution Testers
  • d) All members of the project team


319. What does AgilePM claim to be a key control that can be adjusted?

  • a) Time
  • b) Features
  • c) Cost
  • d) Resource


320. Once the project moves into Exploration and Engineering within Development Timeboxes, enough information is now available to create the detail of the:

  • a) Deployment Plan
  • b) Project Plan
  • c) Phase Plan
  • d) Benefits Review Plan


321. A Development Timebox should typically be within which range of days?

  • a) 20 to 60
  • b) 10 to 30
  • c) 5 to 7
  • d) 60 to 80


322. Adopting one of the agile approaches which promote 'No design up front' (NDUF) can introduce significant risks when delivering a solution into:

  • a) Any environment
  • b) Existing systems
  • c) A customer's business by an external supplier
  • d) A complicated corporate architecture


323. A project risk is something that may happen and, if it does, it will have:

  • a) A value added effect
  • b) No effect at all
  • c) A detrimental effect
  • d) To be removed


324. Managing AgilePM projects relies on having a ________ who focuses on motivating and supporting their empowered teams, rather than micro-managing at a task level

  • a) Team Leader
  • b) Business Sponsor
  • c) Project Manager
  • d) DSDM Coach


325. Delivery planning focuses on two areas: ________ and defining the approaches to be used across the project for developing and controlling the development of, the solution

  • a) scheduling work
  • b) proposing the spend pattern
  • c) identifying resource work rates
  • d) creating the Benefits Review Plan


326. Within AgilePM, change is seen as a fact of life and the power of change is:

  • a) Hampered by the team
  • b) Achieved by full resistance to it
  • c) Manifested by restarting the project
  • d) Harnessed by the team


327. As each increment is completed, a new schedule of Timeboxes is created for the next:

  • a) Increment
  • b) Deployment
  • c) Iteration
  • d) Phase


328. Adopting a traditional approach which mandates 'Big Design Up Front' (BDUF) can:

  • a) Have no effect on an Agile project
  • b) Increase the likelihood of the project finishing early
  • c) Improve an Agile project
  • d) Restrict flexibility and creativity


329. Atern projects are very dynamic with no time to manage daily activities using a bureaucratic approach. How, therefore, will everyone know what is happening?

  • a) The Project Manager will chair Daily Stand-Ups to bring everyone up to speed
  • b) There is no need for everyone to know what is happening
  • c) Because the team is small and work closely together
  • d) The DSDM Coach will advise people about what they need to know


330. Throughout the project the whole team should be ensuring that the Atern Principles are being complied with. What is the result if only one of the principles is breached?

  • a) It may put the Atern approach at risk
  • b) No problem, it is a 'no blame culture'
  • c) Some team members will have to be disciplined
  • d) It will immediately put the Atern approach at risk


331. To be successful with Atern, an organisation may have to change organisational, social and technical elements:

  • a) In sequence
  • b) At the same time
  • c) As part of the same programme * d) To the same degree


332. The Timebox Plan provides information to which role to enable him/her to communicate expectations to the wider stakeholder group?

  • a) Project Manager
  • b) Business Ambassador
  • c) Team Leader
  • d) Business Sponsor


333. According to AgilePM, is experience on the current project useful when refining plans?

  • a) Yes, as the more you know, the better you can plan
  • b) No, since refinement is all about future plans
  • c) Yes, because yesterday's errors should not be compounded
  • d) No, the past should be forgotten, quickly



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