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1.   Agile is focused on ________
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''Big thanks to '''Mirosław Dąbrowski''' [http://www.miroslawdabrowski.com www.miroslawdabrowski.com] for allowing us to post these questions''
  
 +
'''AgilePM Foundation Exam Paper'''
 +
 +
1. AgilePM is focused on ________.
 
* a)  project realization
 
* a)  project realization
 
* b)  benefits delivery  
 
* b)  benefits delivery  
Line 6: Line 9:
 
* d)  style of working
 
* d)  style of working
  
'''Answer: C'''
 
 
 
 
2.  Agile promotes ________
 
  
a)  BDUF - Big Design Up Front
+
2. AgilePM promotes ________.
 +
* a)  BDUF - Big Design Up Front
 +
* b)  EDUF - Enough Design Up Front
 +
* c)  NDOF - No Design Up Front
 +
* d)  DDUF - Detailed Design Up Front
  
b)  EDUF - Enough Design Up Front
 
  
c)   NDOF - No Design Up Front
+
3. Which questions are appropriate to ask before starting an AgilePM project?
 +
* a)  Simple or Complex Environment?
 +
* b)  Delivering Projects or Changing Service?
 +
* c)   Maximum formality within a structured corporate culture?
 +
* d)  Formalized contact with client / business?
  
d)  DDUF - Detailed Design Up Front
 
  
'''Answer: B'''
+
4. AgilePM states that:
 +
* a)  quality and value are same things
 +
* b)  nothing is build ideal for a first time
 +
* c)  people require monitoring and close supervisor
 +
* d)  users cannot define requirements
  
  
3Which questions are appropriate to ask before starting Agile project?
+
5. Agile to be successful requires ________?
 +
* a)   on time delivery, according to business priorities
 +
* b)  communication via chat
 +
* c)  acceptance that change must be controlled
 +
* d)  understanding of business requirements and wants
  
a)  Simple or Complex Environment?
 
  
b)  Delivering Projects or Changing Service?
+
6. Which are characteristics of Self Directed Teams (AgilePM)?
 +
* a)  comply with processes, regardless of outcome
 +
* b)  compete
 +
* c)  continuously look for better ways of working
 +
* d)  focus on low-level objectives
  
c)    Maximum formality within a structured corporate culture?
 
  
d)  Formalized contact with client / business?
+
7. Which is an AgilePM principle?
 +
* a)  Focus on Benefits
 +
* b)  Test Continuously
 +
* c)  Clarify and Refine
 +
* d)  Never Compromise Quality
  
'''Answer: A'''
 
  
 +
8. How is AgilePM managing Change Management?
 +
* a)  Baseline prototype, at least at the end of Development Timebox
 +
* b)  Manage change in every element in project
 +
* c)  Change is not recommended
 +
* d)  Few, or even no baselines
  
4.  AgilePM states that ________
 
  
a)  quality and value are same things
+
9. What does AgilePM state as 4 project parameters?
 +
* a)  Time, cost, quality and benefits
 +
* b)  Time, facilities, results, benefits
 +
* c)  Cost, quality, time, features
 +
* d)  Quantity, time, cost, future
  
b)  nothing is build ideal for a first time
 
  
c)    people require monitoring and close supervisor
+
10. Self Directed Teams (Agile) ________.
 
+
* a)  take directions
d)  users cannot define requirements
+
* b)  are always collocated
 
+
* c)   continuously look for better ways of working
'''Answer: B'''
+
* d)  rigorously comply with procedures
 
 
 
 
5.  Agile to be successful requires ________?
 
 
 
a)  on time delivery, according to business priorities
 
 
 
b)  communication via chat
 
 
 
c)  acceptance that change must be controlled
 
 
 
d)  understanding of business requirements and wants
 
 
 
'''Answer: A'''
 
 
 
 
 
6.  Which are characteristics of Self Directed Teams (Agile)?
 
 
 
a)  comply with processes, regardless of outcome
 
 
 
b)  compete
 
 
 
c)  continuously look for better ways of working
 
 
 
d)  focus on low-level objectives
 
 
 
'''Answer: C'''
 
 
 
 
 
7.  Which is an AgilePM principle?
 
 
 
a)  Focus on Benefits
 
 
 
b)  Test Continuously
 
 
 
c)    Clarify and Refine
 
 
 
d)  Never Compromise Quality
 
 
 
'''Answer: D'''
 
 
 
 
 
8.  How Agile is managing Change Management?
 
 
 
a)  Baseline prototype, at least at the end of Development Timebox
 
 
 
b)  Manage change in every element in project
 
 
 
c)    Change is not recommended
 
 
 
d)  Few, or even no baselines
 
 
 
'''Answer: A'''
 
 
 
 
 
9.  What Agile state as 4 project parameters?
 
 
 
a)  Time, cost, quality and benefits
 
 
 
b)  Time, facilities, results, benefits
 
 
 
c)    Cost, quality, time, features
 
 
 
d)  Quantity, time, cost, future
 
 
 
'''Answer: C'''
 
 
 
 
 
10. Self Directed Teams (Agile)________
 
 
 
a)  take directions
 
 
 
b)  are always collocated
 
 
 
c)   continuously look for better ways of working  
 
 
 
d)  rigorously comply with procedures
 
 
 
'''Answer: C'''
 
  
  
 
11. Which of these is an AgilePM principle?
 
11. Which of these is an AgilePM principle?
 
+
* a)  Communicate often
a)  Communicate often
+
* b)  Communicate verbally  
 
+
* c)   Communicate formally
b)  Communicate verbally  
+
* d)  Communicate continuously and clearly
 
 
c)   Communicate formally
 
 
 
d)  Communicate continuously and clearly
 
 
 
'''Answer: D'''
 
 
 
 
 
12. One of characteristics of Agile Project Management is ________
 
 
 
a)  similar style of management like traditional
 
 
 
b)  strictly adhering to project plan
 
 
 
c)    measured by delivery of products (not by activity)
 
 
 
d)  measured by project plan progress
 
 
 
'''Answer: C'''
 
 
 
 
 
13. Agile Project Management ________
 
 
 
a)  keeps business and product delivery on track
 
 
 
b)  sets team objectives, then lets them get on with it
 
 
 
c)    sustains corporate culture and organizational structure
 
 
 
d)  manages support office involvement with team
 
 
 
'''Answer: B'''
 
  
  
14. In Agile, quality consist of ________
+
12. One of characteristics of AgilePM ________.
 +
* a)  similar style of management like traditional
 +
* b)  strictly adhering to project plan
 +
* c)  measured by delivery of products (not by activity)
 +
* d)  measured by project plan progress
  
a)  product and acceptance criteria
 
  
b)  fit for purpose documentation and good quality product
+
13. AgilePM  ________.
 +
* a)  keeps business and product delivery on track
 +
* b)  sets team objectives, then lets them get on with it
 +
* c)  sustains corporate culture and organizational structure
 +
* d)  manages support office involvement with team
  
c)    good business analysis and effective change management process
 
  
d)  process and solution
+
14. In Agile, quality consists of ________.
 
+
* a)  product and acceptance criteria
'''Answer: D'''
+
* b)  fit for purpose documentation and good quality product
 +
* c)  good business analysis and effective change management process
 +
* d)  process and solution
  
  
 
15. During Foundation AgilePM recommends about final decision to one of three maintainability levels, which is one of them?
 
15. During Foundation AgilePM recommends about final decision to one of three maintainability levels, which is one of them?
 
+
* a)  deliver perfectly, with no errors  
a)  deliver perfectly, with no errors  
+
* b)  deliver first, re-engineer later
 
+
* c)   short-term, strategic solution  
b)  deliver first, re-engineer later
+
* d)  create prototype, test, deploy
 
 
c)   short-term, strategic solution  
 
 
 
d)  create prototype, test, deploy
 
 
 
'''Answer: B'''
 
  
  
 
16. What AgilePM says about quality and Gateway Reviews?
 
16. What AgilePM says about quality and Gateway Reviews?
 
+
* a)  Gateway reviews are only for traditional sequential projects  
a)  Gateway reviews are only for traditional sequential projects  
+
* b)  Gateway reviews are only for programmes
 
+
* c)  Gateway reviews are used as a formalized tool to assess any project health  
b)  Gateway reviews are only for programmes
+
* d)  Gateway reviews should be done only at project start
 
 
c)  Gateway reviews are used as a formalized tool to assess any project health  
 
 
 
d)  Gateway reviews should be done only at project start
 
 
 
'''Answer: C'''
 
  
  
 
17. When acceptance criteria for each product in Development Timebox need to be agreed?  
 
17. When acceptance criteria for each product in Development Timebox need to be agreed?  
 
+
* a)  During Feasibility study  
a)  During Feasibility study
+
* b)  During Foundations
+
* c)   During Kick-Off
b)  During Foundations
+
* d)  During Development Timeboxes
 
 
c)   During Kick-Off
 
 
 
d)  During Development Timeboxes
 
 
 
'''Answer: C'''
 
  
  
 
18. In which scenarios quality was not managed correctly according to AgilePM?
 
18. In which scenarios quality was not managed correctly according to AgilePM?
 
+
* a)  The delivered solution fails to meet the business need  
a)  The delivered solution fails to meet the business need  
+
* b)  The delivered solution has only core functionality
 
+
* c)   The delivered solution has an several minor number of flaws  
b)  The delivered solution has only core functionality
+
* d)  The delivered solution has minimal functionality
 
 
c)   The delivered solution has an several minor number of flaws  
 
 
 
d)  The delivered solution has minimal functionality
 
 
 
'''Answer: A'''
 
  
  
 
19. What is an Engineering phase?
 
19. What is an Engineering phase?
 
+
* a)  The AgilePM phase used iteratively and incrementally to evolve the solution created during Exploration.
a)  The DSDM phase used iteratively and incrementally to evolve the solution created during Exploration.
+
* b)  The AgilePM phase which is used iteratively and incrementally to investigate the detailed requirements and translate them into a form which can then be evolved into a viable solution.
 
+
* c)  The AgilePM phase which gives the first opportunity for deciding whether or not the project is viable from a technical or business perspective.
b)  The DSDM phase which is used iteratively and incrementally to investigate the detailed requirements and translate them into a form which can then be evolved into a viable solution.
+
* d)  The AgilePM phase to establish firm and enduring foundations from the three perspectives on a project of business, solution and management.
 
 
c)  The DSDM phase which gives the first opportunity for deciding whether or not the project is viable from a technical or business perspective.
 
 
 
d)  The DSDM phase to establish firm and enduring foundations from the three perspectives on a project of business, solution and management.
 
 
 
'''Answer: A'''
 
  
  
 
20. AgilePM is an agile project delivery framework that delivers:
 
20. AgilePM is an agile project delivery framework that delivers:
 
+
* a)  A good solution to specification
a)  A good solution to specification
+
* b)  The right solution at the right time
 
+
* c)  Suitable Solutions to cost and scope  
b)  The right solution at the right time
+
* d)  Any solution to quality
 
 
c)  Suitable Solutions to cost and scope  
 
 
 
d)  Any solution to quality
 
 
 
'''Answer: B'''
 
  
  
 
21. The aim of all project management is to deliver the right output:  
 
21. The aim of all project management is to deliver the right output:  
 
+
* a)  On time and on budget using the available resources wisely  
a)  On time and on budget using the available resources wisely  
+
* b)  To the defined level of functionality agreed at the outset
 
+
* c)  Within the constraints of risk imposed by the Business Sponsor
b)  To the defined level of functionality agreed at the outset
+
* d)  Whatever the cost, time or resources needed
 
 
c)  Within the constraints of risk imposed by the Business Sponsor
 
 
 
d)  Whatever the cost, time or resources needed
 
 
 
'''Answer: A'''
 
  
  
 
22. Development Timebox planning represents which level of planning within an AgilePM project?
 
22. Development Timebox planning represents which level of planning within an AgilePM project?
 
+
* a)  Highest  
a)  Highest  
+
* b)  Best
 
+
* c)  Lowest  
b)  Best
+
* d)  Earliest
 
 
c)  Lowest  
 
 
 
d)  Earliest
 
 
 
'''Answer: C'''
 
  
  
 
23. In AgilePM projects how many levels of decision making are normally present?
 
23. In AgilePM projects how many levels of decision making are normally present?
 
+
* a)  Two: steering level and project level
a)  Two: steering level and project level
+
* b)  Three: steering level, project level and team level
 
+
* c)   Four: steering level, project level, business level and team level  
b)  Three: steering level, project level and team level
+
* d)  Three: project level, solution development level and other
 
 
c)   Four: steering level, project level, business level and team level  
 
 
 
d)  Three: project level, solution development level and other
 
 
 
'''Answer: B'''
 
  
  
 
24. In an Agile project it is vital that stakeholder buy into?
 
24. In an Agile project it is vital that stakeholder buy into?
 
+
* a)  The Products  
a)  The Products  
+
* b)   The processes  
 
+
* c)   The Principles  
b)   The processes  
+
* d)   The Philosophy
 
 
c)   The Principles  
 
 
 
d)   The Philosophy
 
 
 
'''Answer: D'''
 
  
  
 
25. Early delivery of real benefits to the business is best achieved when key stakeholders understand the business objectives and experience which of the following?
 
25. Early delivery of real benefits to the business is best achieved when key stakeholders understand the business objectives and experience which of the following?
 
+
* a)  Empowerment and collaboration  
a)  Empowerment and collaboration  
+
* b)  Indifference and commitment
 
+
* c)  Collaboration and autonomy
b)  Indifference and commitment
+
* d)  Detailed planning and quality assurance
 
 
c)  Collaboration and autonomy
 
 
 
d)  Detailed planning and quality assurance
 
 
 
'''Answer: A'''
 
  
  
 
26. Why will everybody concerned with the development team know what is happening?
 
26. Why will everybody concerned with the development team know what is happening?
 
+
* a)  They are part of a small team working closely together  
a)  They are part of a small team working closely together  
+
* b)  There are regular and full reports by the Team Leader
 
+
* c)  Every day begins with a full review of the status of the whole project  
b)  There are regular and full reports by the Team Leader
+
* d)  People are given time to inquire of other teams as necessary
 
 
c)  Every day begins with a full review of the status of the whole project  
 
 
 
d)  People are given time to inquire of other teams as necessary
 
 
 
'''Answer: A'''
 
  
  
 
27. AgilePM's Project Approach Questionnaire (PAQ) provides a good starting point for:
 
27. AgilePM's Project Approach Questionnaire (PAQ) provides a good starting point for:
 
+
* a)  Creating a clear understanding of project risks and their mitigation
a)  Creating a clear understanding of project risks and their mitigation
+
* b)  Ensuring that the project will be capable of being managed by the Team Leader  
 
+
* c)  Providing a risk free environment for the project
b)  Ensuring that the project will be capable of being managed by the Team Leader  
+
* d)  Delivering a product which conforms to the specification agreed at the outset
 
 
c)  Providing a risk free environment for the project
 
 
 
d)  Delivering a product which conforms to the specification agreed at the outset
 
 
 
'''Answer: A'''
 
  
  
 
28. There is a perception that risk management is a Project Manager responsibility. However in reality:
 
28. There is a perception that risk management is a Project Manager responsibility. However in reality:
 
+
* a)  The Business Sponsor should manage all risks  
a)  The Business Sponsor should manage all risks  
+
* b)  The whole team should be aware of the risks
 
+
* c)   The Project Manager should never undertake the management of risk  
b)  The whole team should be aware of the risks
+
* d)  The development team manager should take care of all risks
 
 
c)   The Project Manager should never undertake the management of risk  
 
 
 
d)  The development team manager should take care of all risks
 
 
 
'''Answer: B'''
 
  
  
 
29. On what should the project team and other significant stakeholders remain focused?
 
29. On what should the project team and other significant stakeholders remain focused?
 
+
* a)  The business outcome
a)  The business outcome
+
* b)  The process model  
 
+
* c)   The major risks
b)  The process model  
+
* d)  The people in the development team
 
 
c)   The major risks
 
 
 
d)  The people in the development team
 
 
 
'''Answer: A'''
 
  
  
 
30. During Feasibility, a high-level investigation is carried out. Typically, at this stage, there are a:
 
30. During Feasibility, a high-level investigation is carried out. Typically, at this stage, there are a:
 
+
* a)  Small number of requirements
a)  Small number of requirements
+
* b)  Large number of conflicting requirements
 
+
* c)  Few requirements which can be fully managed
b)  Large number of conflicting requirements
+
* d)  Number of features which can safely be left out of this project
 
 
c)  Few requirements which can be fully managed
 
 
 
d)  Number of features which can safely be left out of this project
 
 
 
'''Answer: A'''
 
  
  
 
31. AgilePM's approach to project management fixes which of the following?
 
31. AgilePM's approach to project management fixes which of the following?
 
+
* a)  Scope, quality and risk at the Foundations phase  
a)  Scope, quality and risk at the Foundations phase  
+
* b)  Time, cost and quality at the Foundations phase
 
+
* c)  Features with all other functions being used as variables  
b)  Time, cost and quality at the Foundations phase
+
* d)  Time, cost and quality at the Deployment phase
 
 
c)  Features with all other functions being used as variables  
 
 
 
d)  Time, cost and quality at the Deployment phase
 
 
 
'''Answer: B'''
 
  
  
 
32. AgilePM can also incorporate other agile delivery approaches, such as extreme Programming (XP)
 
32. AgilePM can also incorporate other agile delivery approaches, such as extreme Programming (XP)
 
and SCRUM to provide the necessary agile management framework to:
 
and SCRUM to provide the necessary agile management framework to:
 
+
* a)  Enable controlled delivery of agile projects
a)  Enable controlled delivery of agile projects
+
* b)  Facilitate good practice project management  
 
+
* c)   Provide adequate techniques for all projects
b)  Facilitate good practice project management  
+
* d)  Ensure all projects are delivered to time and cost
 
 
c)   Provide adequate techniques for all projects
 
 
 
d)  Ensure all projects are delivered to time and cost
 
 
 
'''Answer: A'''
 
  
  
 
33. Which of the following statements is true about AgilePM team members?
 
33. Which of the following statements is true about AgilePM team members?
 
+
* a)  They do not need to be effective communicators  
a)  They do not need to be effective communicators  
+
* b)  They must all be like-minded people
 
+
* c)   They should be part of a large team to allow for illness  
b)  They must all be like-minded people
+
* d)  They must be able to communicate effectively
 
 
c)   They should be part of a large team to allow for illness  
 
 
 
d)  They must be able to communicate effectively
 
 
 
'''Answer: D'''
 
  
  
 
34. The solution will be delivered ________, according to the priorities set by the business  
 
34. The solution will be delivered ________, according to the priorities set by the business  
 
+
* a)  to the proposed cost
a)  to the proposed cost
+
* b)  in total as agreed at the outset  
 
+
* c)   in the agreed timescale
b)  in total as agreed at the outset  
+
* d)  within achievable criteria
 
 
c)   in the agreed timescale
 
 
 
d)  within achievable criteria
 
 
 
'''Answer: C'''
 
  
  
 
35. AgilePM strongly recommends which roles should use collaborative techniques, such as Facilitated Workshops, for planning?
 
35. AgilePM strongly recommends which roles should use collaborative techniques, such as Facilitated Workshops, for planning?
 
+
* a)  Project Managers and Team Leaders
a)  Project Managers and Team Leaders
+
* b)  Project Managers and Technical Coordinators  
 
+
* c)   Team Leaders and Business Analysts
b)  Project Managers and Technical Coordinators  
+
* d)  Solution Developers and Business Advisors
 
 
c)   Team Leaders and Business Analysts
 
 
 
d)  Solution Developers and Business Advisors
 
 
 
'''Answer: A'''
 
  
  
 
36. Once the project moves into Exploration and Engineering within Development Timeboxes, enough information will be available to create which of the following?
 
36. Once the project moves into Exploration and Engineering within Development Timeboxes, enough information will be available to create which of the following?
 
+
* a)  A Feasibility Plan
a)  A Feasibility Plan
+
* b)  The detail of the Deployment Plan
 
+
* c)   A Deployment Plan for all products of the project  
b)  The detail of the Deployment Plan
+
* d)  Timeboxes for the remainder of the project
 
 
c)   A Deployment Plan for all products of the project  
 
 
 
d)  Timeboxes for the remainder of the project
 
 
 
'''Answer: B'''
 
  
  
 
37. The AgilePM framework is supported by a Project Lifecycle (Process) with which of the following?
 
37. The AgilePM framework is supported by a Project Lifecycle (Process) with which of the following?
 
+
* a)  Defined Products, Roles and Responsibilities and recommended Techniques  
a)  Defined Products, Roles and Responsibilities and recommended Techniques  
+
* b)  A defined process model requiring the use of all processes
 
+
* c)  Allowances for the Project Manager to take command of the development team when required
b)  A defined process model requiring the use of all processes
+
* d)  A set of best practice techniques which permit full testing of each product before deployment
 
 
c)  Allowances for the Project Manager to take command of the development team when
 
required
 
 
 
d)  A set of best practice techniques which permit full testing of each product before deployment
 
 
 
'''Answer: A'''
 
  
  
 
38. Following the wrong or inappropriate approach to project management can do which of the following?
 
38. Following the wrong or inappropriate approach to project management can do which of the following?
 
+
* a)  Provide the project management team with invaluable experience
a)  Provide the project management team with invaluable experience
+
* b)  Encourage the project sponsor to be involved in the development team  
 
+
* c)   Improve project performance by a large degree
b)  Encourage the project sponsor to be involved in the development team  
+
* d)  Dramatically increase the risks
 
 
c)   Improve project performance by a large degree
 
 
 
d)  Dramatically increase the risks
 
 
 
'''Answer: D'''
 
  
  
 
39. As each increment is completed:
 
39. As each increment is completed:
 
+
* a)  A new schedule of Timeboxes is created for the next increment
a)  A new schedule of Timeboxes is created for the next increment
+
* b)  New plans must be created to account for any loss of productivity  
 
+
* c)  A new increment schedule is created for the next deployment
b)  New plans must be created to account for any loss of productivity  
+
* d)  The development team will gather a new set of requirements from the customer
 
 
c)  A new increment schedule is created for the next deployment
 
 
 
d)  The development team will gather a new set of requirements from the customer
 
 
 
'''Answer: A'''
 
  
  
 
40. How does an AgilePM project view having a fixed deadline?
 
40. How does an AgilePM project view having a fixed deadline?
 
+
* a)  As a problem to be overcome  
a)  As a problem to be overcome  
+
* b)  As a risk that threatens quality  
 
+
* c)   As a benefit rather than a risk
b)  As a risk that threatens quality  
+
* d)  As a challenge which may be met
 
 
c)   As a benefit rather than a risk
 
 
 
d)  As a challenge which may be met
 
 
 
'''Answer: C'''
 
  
  
 
41. At what point in the project must the stakeholders be prepared to accept that change is inevitable?
 
41. At what point in the project must the stakeholders be prepared to accept that change is inevitable?
 
+
* a)  Each time the customer changes their mind about what is required  
a)  Each time the customer changes their mind about what is required  
+
* b)  Whenever there is an easier solution which can be developed
 
+
* c)  As they understand more about the solution being developed
b)  Whenever there is an easier solution which can be developed
+
* d)  When testing demonstrates that the product is unsuitable for use
 
 
c)  As they understand more about the solution being developed
 
 
 
d)  When testing demonstrates that the product is unsuitable for use
 
 
 
'''Answer: C'''
 
  
  
 
42. The stakeholders must be prepared to deliver a:
 
42. The stakeholders must be prepared to deliver a:
 
+
* a)  Quality product
a)  Quality product
+
* b)  Solution which will maximise business benefits  
 
+
* c)  Product which meets all the required attributes
b)  Solution which will maximise business benefits  
+
* d)  Fit-for-purpose solution
 
 
c)  Product which meets all the required attributes  
 
 
 
d)  Fit-for-purpose solution
 
 
 
'''Answer: D'''
 
  
  
 
43. The AgilePM evolutionary approach to planning avoids which problem?
 
43. The AgilePM evolutionary approach to planning avoids which problem?
 
+
* a)  Generating an overemphasis on the planning protocol
a)  Generating an overemphasis on the planning protocol
+
* b)  Providing a false sense of security for future steps that are still unclear.  
 
+
* c)   Reliance on success-based planning
b)  Providing a false sense of security for future steps that are still unclear.  
+
* d)  Commitment to activities which cannot be understood until they are finished
 
 
c)   Reliance on success-based planning
 
 
 
d)  Commitment to activities which cannot be understood until they are finished
 
 
 
'''Answer: B'''
 
  
  
 
44. There will be no need for complex and bureaucratic monitoring systems in a small AgilePM team working with:
 
44. There will be no need for complex and bureaucratic monitoring systems in a small AgilePM team working with:
 
+
* a)  III defined objectives to permit them freedom of expression
a)  III defined objectives to permit them freedom of expression
+
* b)  Enough resources of time and cost to complete everything assigned to them  
 
+
* c)  The command and control approach of the Project Manager
b)  Enough resources of time and cost to complete everything assigned to them  
+
* d)  Clear objectives in Development Timeboxes of short duration
 
 
c)  The command and control approach of the Project Manager
 
 
 
d)  Clear objectives in Development Timeboxes of short duration
 
 
 
'''Answer: D'''
 
  
  
 
45. Adopting a traditional approach where a project must deliver on a fixed date:
 
45. Adopting a traditional approach where a project must deliver on a fixed date:
 
+
* a)  Reduces risk to meeting the delivery date
a)  Reduces risk to meeting the delivery date
+
* b)  Improves the prospect of the project being able to deliver to cost  
 
+
* c)  Removes all risk from the project
b)  Improves the prospect of the project being able to deliver to cost  
+
* d)  Adds a risk since a traditional approach expects to use time as contingency
 
 
c)  Removes all risk from the project
 
 
 
d)  Adds a risk since a traditional approach expects to use time as contingency
 
 
 
'''Answer: D'''
 
  
  
 
46. All people involved with the project work ________ to deliver the optimum solution  
 
46. All people involved with the project work ________ to deliver the optimum solution  
 
+
* a)  collectively
a)  collectively
+
* b)  independently  
 
+
* c)   interactively
b)  independently  
+
* d)  collaboratively
 
 
c)   interactively
 
 
 
d)  collaboratively
 
 
 
'''Answer: D'''
 
  
  
 
47. AgilePM should be tailored to suit a project's individual needs within the governance needs set by which authority?
 
47. AgilePM should be tailored to suit a project's individual needs within the governance needs set by which authority?
 
+
* a)  Quality Assurance  
a)  Quality Assurance  
+
* b)  External suppliers
 
+
* c)  Regulatory authorities  
b)  External suppliers
+
* d)  The organisation
 
 
c)  Regulatory authorities  
 
 
 
d)  The organisation
 
 
 
'''Answer: D'''
 
  
  
 
48. In AgilePM, plans evolve as the understanding of the:
 
48. In AgilePM, plans evolve as the understanding of the:
 
+
* a)  Requirements deepens and the level of uncertainty increases.  
a)  Requirements deepens and the level of uncertainty increases.  
+
* b)  Development team skills becomes clearer
 
+
* c)  Complexity of the product being developed increases
b)  Development team skills becomes clearer
+
* d)  Requirements deepens and the level of uncertainty decreases.
 
 
c)  Complexity of the product being developed increases
 
 
 
d)  Requirements deepens and the level of uncertainty decreases.
 
 
 
'''Answer: D'''
 
  
  
 
49. Most projects have 4 parameters - time, cost, features and quality. Trying to fix all these parameters at the outset is:
 
49. Most projects have 4 parameters - time, cost, features and quality. Trying to fix all these parameters at the outset is:
 
+
* a)  The mechanism by which AgilePM operates  
a)  The mechanism by which Agile operates
+
* b)  Appropriate to most types of projects
 
+
* c)  Impractical and is the cause of many common problems
b)  Appropriate to most types of projects
+
* d)  Difficult to achieve without an experienced Project Manager
 
 
c)  Impractical and is the cause of many common problems
 
 
 
d)  Difficult to achieve without an experienced Project Manager
 
 
 
'''Answer: C'''
 
  
  
 
50. AgilePM advocates that projects should do:
 
50. AgilePM advocates that projects should do:
 
+
* a)  Only the 'big design up front'  
a)  Only the 'big design up front'  
+
* b)  Possibly 'no design up front'
 
+
* c)   Sometimes 'enough design up front'  
b)  Possibly 'no design up front'
+
* d)  Just 'enough design up front'
 
 
c)   Sometimes 'enough design up front'  
 
 
 
d)  Just 'enough design up front'
 
 
 
'''Answer: D'''
 
  
  
 
51. Managing an AgilePM project is about enabling constant change while:
 
51. Managing an AgilePM project is about enabling constant change while:
 
+
* a)  Maintaining business as usual
a)  Maintaining business as usual
+
* b)  Ensuring the customer will fund the changes
 
+
* c)  Continuously correcting the course of the project  
b)  Ensuring the customer will fund the changes
+
* d)  Relaxing quality to compensate
 
 
c)  Continuously correcting the course of the project  
 
 
 
d)  Relaxing quality to compensate
 
 
 
'''Answer: C'''
 
  
  
 
52. The AgilePM framework details which of the following to guide practitioners in the adoption of the Philosophy?
 
52. The AgilePM framework details which of the following to guide practitioners in the adoption of the Philosophy?
 
+
* a)  Seven roles which must all be allocated on a one-to-one basis  
a)  Seven roles which must all be allocated on a one-to-one basis  
+
* b)  Eight working Principles
 
+
* c)  Nine techniques which may be omitted as necessary  
b)  Eight working Principles
+
* d)  Eight Processes which form a process model
 
 
c)  Nine techniques which may be omitted as necessary  
 
 
 
d)  Eight Processes which form a process model
 
 
 
'''Answer: B'''
 
  
  
 
53. How does an AgilePM project react when the business changes its mind?
 
53. How does an AgilePM project react when the business changes its mind?
 
+
* a)  Resists the change
a)  Resists the change
+
* b)  Sees it as a fact of life
 
+
* c)  Adopts the change if it is easy to accommodate
b)  Sees it as a fact of life
+
* d)  Re-starts the project with new Terms of Reference (ToR)
 
 
c)  Adopts the change if it is easy to accommodate
 
 
 
d)  Re-starts the project with new Terms of Reference (ToR)
 
 
 
'''Answer: B'''
 
  
  
 
54. Using AgilePM ensures ________ of a fit-for-purpose solution  
 
54. Using AgilePM ensures ________ of a fit-for-purpose solution  
 
+
* a)  an expensive delivery
a)  an expensive delivery
+
* b)  on-time delivery
 
+
* c)  the users can specify what they want  
b)  on-time delivery
+
* d)  the business will never take delivery
 
 
c)  the users can specify what they want  
 
 
 
d)  the business will never take delivery
 
 
 
'''Answer: B'''
 
  
  
 
55. The eight principles of AgilePM support the:
 
55. The eight principles of AgilePM support the:
 
+
* a)  Project Management Philosophy  
a)  Project Management Philosophy  
+
* b)  Process model
 
+
* c)  Approach to risk
b)  Process model
+
* d)  Achievement of quality
 
 
c)  Approach to risk
 
 
 
d)  Achievement of quality
 
 
 
'''Answer: A'''
 
  
  
 
56. If a team doesn't follow all the principles what will not be achieved?
 
56. If a team doesn't follow all the principles what will not be achieved?
 
+
* a)  The project outcome
a)  The project outcome
+
* b)  A reliable development team  
 
+
* c)  Business involvement
b)  A reliable development team  
+
* d)  The full benefit
 
 
c)  Business involvement
 
 
 
d)  The full benefit
 
 
 
'''Answer: D'''
 
  
  
 
57. 'Build incrementally from firm foundations' is an AgilePM principle which is supported when the team do which of the following?
 
57. 'Build incrementally from firm foundations' is an AgilePM principle which is supported when the team do which of the following?
 
+
* a)  Formally re-assess priorities with each delivered increment  
a)  Formally re-assess priorities with each delivered increment  
+
* b)  Informally re-assess priorities with each delivered increment
 
+
* c)  Ensure all deployed features provide a return on investment within a month of use
b)  Informally re-assess priorities with each delivered increment
+
* d)  Build from a 'big design up front'
 
 
c)  Ensure all deployed features provide a return on investment within a month of use
 
 
 
d)  Build from a 'big design up front'
 
 
 
'''Answer: A'''
 
  
  
 
58. The 'Deliver on time' principle enables organisations to achieve which of the following?
 
58. The 'Deliver on time' principle enables organisations to achieve which of the following?
 
+
* a)  Market opportunities or windows of opportunity  
a)  Market opportunities or windows of opportunity  
+
* b)  Market opportunities or legal deadlines
 
+
* c)  Maximum return on investment or profit  
b)  Market opportunities or legal deadlines
+
* d)  No discernible business improvement
 
 
c)  Maximum return on investment or profit  
 
 
 
d)  No discernible business improvement
 
 
 
'''Answer: B'''
 
  
  
 
59. In AgilePM, the level of quality to be delivered should be agreed at the start. A solution has to be:
 
59. In AgilePM, the level of quality to be delivered should be agreed at the start. A solution has to be:
 
+
* a)  Perfect
a)  Perfect
+
* b)  As good as it can be  
 
+
* c)  Good enough
b)  As good as it can be  
+
* d)  The best possible option
 
 
c)  Good enough
 
 
 
d)  The best possible option
 
 
 
'''Answer: C'''
 
  
  
 
60. Ensuring that the members of the team are empowered to take decisions on behalf of those they represent means that AgilePM teams will be following what principle?
 
60. Ensuring that the members of the team are empowered to take decisions on behalf of those they represent means that AgilePM teams will be following what principle?
 
+
* a)  Deliver on time
a)  Deliver on time
+
* b)  Focus on the business need  
 
+
* c)  Collaborate
b)  Focus on the business need  
+
* d)  Communicate continuously and clearly
 
 
c)  Collaborate
 
 
 
d)  Communicate continuously and clearly
 
 
 
'''Answer: C'''
 
  
  
 
61. Poor communication is often cited as the:
 
61. Poor communication is often cited as the:
 
+
* a)  Reason why projects succeed
a)  Reason why projects succeed
+
* b)  Biggest single cause of project failure  
 
+
* c)  Essential ingredient for all projects
b)  Biggest single cause of project failure  
+
* d)  The only cause of projects failing to deliver on time
 
 
c)  Essential ingredient for all projects
 
 
 
d)  The only cause of projects failing to deliver on time
 
 
 
'''Answer: B'''
 
  
  
 
62. When AgilePM advocates a pragmatic approach to change what principle is behind the statement?
 
62. When AgilePM advocates a pragmatic approach to change what principle is behind the statement?
 
+
* a)  Demonstrate control  
a)  Demonstrate control
+
* b)  Develop Iteratively
 
+
* c)  Focus on the business need
b)  Develop Iteratively
+
* d)  Communicate continuously and clearly
 
 
c)  Focus on the business need
 
 
 
d)  Communicate continuously and clearly
 
 
 
'''Answer: B'''
 
  
  
 
63. In AgilePM, the level of ________ should be agreed at the start  
 
63. In AgilePM, the level of ________ should be agreed at the start  
 
+
* a)  resources to be consumed
a)  resources to be consumed
+
* b)  risk to be taken
 
+
* c)  quality to be delivered
b)  risk to be taken
+
* d)  management intervention
 
 
c)  quality to be delivered
 
 
 
d)  management intervention
 
 
 
'''Answer: C'''
 
  
  
 
64. Compromising any principle undermines:
 
64. Compromising any principle undermines:
 
+
* a)  Risk management  
a)  Risk management  
+
* b)  Timely delivery
 
+
* c)  AgilePM's basic philosophy  
b)  Timely delivery
+
* d)  The cost of the project
 
 
c)  AgilePM's basic philosophy  
 
 
 
d)  The cost of the project
 
 
 
'''Answer: C'''
 
  
  
 
65. To contribute to the AgilePM principle, never compromise quality, everything is tested:
 
65. To contribute to the AgilePM principle, never compromise quality, everything is tested:
 
+
* a)  When the team has completed work on the feature  
a)  When the team has completed work on the feature  
+
* b)  Before work moves from design to manufacture
 
+
* c)  Within the deployment phase  
b)  Before work moves from design to manufacture
+
* d)  As early as possible
 
 
c)  Within the deployment phase  
 
 
 
d)  As early as possible
 
 
 
'''Answer: D'''
 
  
  
 
66. Teams that work in a spirit of active cooperation and commitment will always:
 
66. Teams that work in a spirit of active cooperation and commitment will always:
 +
* a)  Deliver a full solution to time
 +
* b)  Outperform groups of individuals working only in loose association
 +
* c)    Learn more from each other than from other teams
 +
* d)  Work better on successive projects
  
a)  Deliver a full solution to time
 
  
b)  Outperform groups of individuals working only in loose association
+
67. When AgilePM advocates first understanding the scope of the business problem to be solved and the proposed solution, but not in such detail that the project becomes paralysed what principle is being advocated?
 +
* a)  Build incrementally from firm foundations
 +
* b)  Develop Iteratively
 +
* c)  Focus on the business need
 +
* d)  Demonstrate control
  
c)  Learn more from each other than from other teams
 
  
d)  Work better on successive projects
 
  
'''Answer: B'''
+
<span style="font-size:75%; line-height: 1.31em;">Keywords: AgilePM, Agile Foundation,  AgilePM Practitioner, AgilePM Certification, AgilePM Exams, AgilePM PDF, AgilePM Manual </span>

Latest revision as of 09:53, 5 April 2017

Big thanks to Mirosław Dąbrowski www.miroslawdabrowski.com for allowing us to post these questions

AgilePM Foundation Exam Paper

1. AgilePM is focused on ________.

  • a) project realization
  • b) benefits delivery
  • c) value delivery
  • d) style of working


2. AgilePM promotes ________.

  • a) BDUF - Big Design Up Front
  • b) EDUF - Enough Design Up Front
  • c) NDOF - No Design Up Front
  • d) DDUF - Detailed Design Up Front


3. Which questions are appropriate to ask before starting an AgilePM project?

  • a) Simple or Complex Environment?
  • b) Delivering Projects or Changing Service?
  • c) Maximum formality within a structured corporate culture?
  • d) Formalized contact with client / business?


4. AgilePM states that:

  • a) quality and value are same things
  • b) nothing is build ideal for a first time
  • c) people require monitoring and close supervisor
  • d) users cannot define requirements


5. Agile to be successful requires ________?

  • a) on time delivery, according to business priorities
  • b) communication via chat
  • c) acceptance that change must be controlled
  • d) understanding of business requirements and wants


6. Which are characteristics of Self Directed Teams (AgilePM)?

  • a) comply with processes, regardless of outcome
  • b) compete
  • c) continuously look for better ways of working
  • d) focus on low-level objectives


7. Which is an AgilePM principle?

  • a) Focus on Benefits
  • b) Test Continuously
  • c) Clarify and Refine
  • d) Never Compromise Quality


8. How is AgilePM managing Change Management?

  • a) Baseline prototype, at least at the end of Development Timebox
  • b) Manage change in every element in project
  • c) Change is not recommended
  • d) Few, or even no baselines


9. What does AgilePM state as 4 project parameters?

  • a) Time, cost, quality and benefits
  • b) Time, facilities, results, benefits
  • c) Cost, quality, time, features
  • d) Quantity, time, cost, future


10. Self Directed Teams (Agile) ________.

  • a) take directions
  • b) are always collocated
  • c) continuously look for better ways of working
  • d) rigorously comply with procedures


11. Which of these is an AgilePM principle?

  • a) Communicate often
  • b) Communicate verbally
  • c) Communicate formally
  • d) Communicate continuously and clearly


12. One of characteristics of AgilePM ________.

  • a) similar style of management like traditional
  • b) strictly adhering to project plan
  • c) measured by delivery of products (not by activity)
  • d) measured by project plan progress


13. AgilePM ________.

  • a) keeps business and product delivery on track
  • b) sets team objectives, then lets them get on with it
  • c) sustains corporate culture and organizational structure
  • d) manages support office involvement with team


14. In Agile, quality consists of ________.

  • a) product and acceptance criteria
  • b) fit for purpose documentation and good quality product
  • c) good business analysis and effective change management process
  • d) process and solution


15. During Foundation AgilePM recommends about final decision to one of three maintainability levels, which is one of them?

  • a) deliver perfectly, with no errors
  • b) deliver first, re-engineer later
  • c) short-term, strategic solution
  • d) create prototype, test, deploy


16. What AgilePM says about quality and Gateway Reviews?

  • a) Gateway reviews are only for traditional sequential projects
  • b) Gateway reviews are only for programmes
  • c) Gateway reviews are used as a formalized tool to assess any project health
  • d) Gateway reviews should be done only at project start


17. When acceptance criteria for each product in Development Timebox need to be agreed?

  • a) During Feasibility study
  • b) During Foundations
  • c) During Kick-Off
  • d) During Development Timeboxes


18. In which scenarios quality was not managed correctly according to AgilePM?

  • a) The delivered solution fails to meet the business need
  • b) The delivered solution has only core functionality
  • c) The delivered solution has an several minor number of flaws
  • d) The delivered solution has minimal functionality


19. What is an Engineering phase?

  • a) The AgilePM phase used iteratively and incrementally to evolve the solution created during Exploration.
  • b) The AgilePM phase which is used iteratively and incrementally to investigate the detailed requirements and translate them into a form which can then be evolved into a viable solution.
  • c) The AgilePM phase which gives the first opportunity for deciding whether or not the project is viable from a technical or business perspective.
  • d) The AgilePM phase to establish firm and enduring foundations from the three perspectives on a project of business, solution and management.


20. AgilePM is an agile project delivery framework that delivers:

  • a) A good solution to specification
  • b) The right solution at the right time
  • c) Suitable Solutions to cost and scope
  • d) Any solution to quality


21. The aim of all project management is to deliver the right output:

  • a) On time and on budget using the available resources wisely
  • b) To the defined level of functionality agreed at the outset
  • c) Within the constraints of risk imposed by the Business Sponsor
  • d) Whatever the cost, time or resources needed


22. Development Timebox planning represents which level of planning within an AgilePM project?

  • a) Highest
  • b) Best
  • c) Lowest
  • d) Earliest


23. In AgilePM projects how many levels of decision making are normally present?

  • a) Two: steering level and project level
  • b) Three: steering level, project level and team level
  • c) Four: steering level, project level, business level and team level
  • d) Three: project level, solution development level and other


24. In an Agile project it is vital that stakeholder buy into?

  • a) The Products
  • b) The processes
  • c) The Principles
  • d) The Philosophy


25. Early delivery of real benefits to the business is best achieved when key stakeholders understand the business objectives and experience which of the following?

  • a) Empowerment and collaboration
  • b) Indifference and commitment
  • c) Collaboration and autonomy
  • d) Detailed planning and quality assurance


26. Why will everybody concerned with the development team know what is happening?

  • a) They are part of a small team working closely together
  • b) There are regular and full reports by the Team Leader
  • c) Every day begins with a full review of the status of the whole project
  • d) People are given time to inquire of other teams as necessary


27. AgilePM's Project Approach Questionnaire (PAQ) provides a good starting point for:

  • a) Creating a clear understanding of project risks and their mitigation
  • b) Ensuring that the project will be capable of being managed by the Team Leader
  • c) Providing a risk free environment for the project
  • d) Delivering a product which conforms to the specification agreed at the outset


28. There is a perception that risk management is a Project Manager responsibility. However in reality:

  • a) The Business Sponsor should manage all risks
  • b) The whole team should be aware of the risks
  • c) The Project Manager should never undertake the management of risk
  • d) The development team manager should take care of all risks


29. On what should the project team and other significant stakeholders remain focused?

  • a) The business outcome
  • b) The process model
  • c) The major risks
  • d) The people in the development team


30. During Feasibility, a high-level investigation is carried out. Typically, at this stage, there are a:

  • a) Small number of requirements
  • b) Large number of conflicting requirements
  • c) Few requirements which can be fully managed
  • d) Number of features which can safely be left out of this project


31. AgilePM's approach to project management fixes which of the following?

  • a) Scope, quality and risk at the Foundations phase
  • b) Time, cost and quality at the Foundations phase
  • c) Features with all other functions being used as variables
  • d) Time, cost and quality at the Deployment phase


32. AgilePM can also incorporate other agile delivery approaches, such as extreme Programming (XP) and SCRUM to provide the necessary agile management framework to:

  • a) Enable controlled delivery of agile projects
  • b) Facilitate good practice project management
  • c) Provide adequate techniques for all projects
  • d) Ensure all projects are delivered to time and cost


33. Which of the following statements is true about AgilePM team members?

  • a) They do not need to be effective communicators
  • b) They must all be like-minded people
  • c) They should be part of a large team to allow for illness
  • d) They must be able to communicate effectively


34. The solution will be delivered ________, according to the priorities set by the business

  • a) to the proposed cost
  • b) in total as agreed at the outset
  • c) in the agreed timescale
  • d) within achievable criteria


35. AgilePM strongly recommends which roles should use collaborative techniques, such as Facilitated Workshops, for planning?

  • a) Project Managers and Team Leaders
  • b) Project Managers and Technical Coordinators
  • c) Team Leaders and Business Analysts
  • d) Solution Developers and Business Advisors


36. Once the project moves into Exploration and Engineering within Development Timeboxes, enough information will be available to create which of the following?

  • a) A Feasibility Plan
  • b) The detail of the Deployment Plan
  • c) A Deployment Plan for all products of the project
  • d) Timeboxes for the remainder of the project


37. The AgilePM framework is supported by a Project Lifecycle (Process) with which of the following?

  • a) Defined Products, Roles and Responsibilities and recommended Techniques
  • b) A defined process model requiring the use of all processes
  • c) Allowances for the Project Manager to take command of the development team when required
  • d) A set of best practice techniques which permit full testing of each product before deployment


38. Following the wrong or inappropriate approach to project management can do which of the following?

  • a) Provide the project management team with invaluable experience
  • b) Encourage the project sponsor to be involved in the development team
  • c) Improve project performance by a large degree
  • d) Dramatically increase the risks


39. As each increment is completed:

  • a) A new schedule of Timeboxes is created for the next increment
  • b) New plans must be created to account for any loss of productivity
  • c) A new increment schedule is created for the next deployment
  • d) The development team will gather a new set of requirements from the customer


40. How does an AgilePM project view having a fixed deadline?

  • a) As a problem to be overcome
  • b) As a risk that threatens quality
  • c) As a benefit rather than a risk
  • d) As a challenge which may be met


41. At what point in the project must the stakeholders be prepared to accept that change is inevitable?

  • a) Each time the customer changes their mind about what is required
  • b) Whenever there is an easier solution which can be developed
  • c) As they understand more about the solution being developed
  • d) When testing demonstrates that the product is unsuitable for use


42. The stakeholders must be prepared to deliver a:

  • a) Quality product
  • b) Solution which will maximise business benefits
  • c) Product which meets all the required attributes
  • d) Fit-for-purpose solution


43. The AgilePM evolutionary approach to planning avoids which problem?

  • a) Generating an overemphasis on the planning protocol
  • b) Providing a false sense of security for future steps that are still unclear.
  • c) Reliance on success-based planning
  • d) Commitment to activities which cannot be understood until they are finished


44. There will be no need for complex and bureaucratic monitoring systems in a small AgilePM team working with:

  • a) III defined objectives to permit them freedom of expression
  • b) Enough resources of time and cost to complete everything assigned to them
  • c) The command and control approach of the Project Manager
  • d) Clear objectives in Development Timeboxes of short duration


45. Adopting a traditional approach where a project must deliver on a fixed date:

  • a) Reduces risk to meeting the delivery date
  • b) Improves the prospect of the project being able to deliver to cost
  • c) Removes all risk from the project
  • d) Adds a risk since a traditional approach expects to use time as contingency


46. All people involved with the project work ________ to deliver the optimum solution

  • a) collectively
  • b) independently
  • c) interactively
  • d) collaboratively


47. AgilePM should be tailored to suit a project's individual needs within the governance needs set by which authority?

  • a) Quality Assurance
  • b) External suppliers
  • c) Regulatory authorities
  • d) The organisation


48. In AgilePM, plans evolve as the understanding of the:

  • a) Requirements deepens and the level of uncertainty increases.
  • b) Development team skills becomes clearer
  • c) Complexity of the product being developed increases
  • d) Requirements deepens and the level of uncertainty decreases.


49. Most projects have 4 parameters - time, cost, features and quality. Trying to fix all these parameters at the outset is:

  • a) The mechanism by which AgilePM operates
  • b) Appropriate to most types of projects
  • c) Impractical and is the cause of many common problems
  • d) Difficult to achieve without an experienced Project Manager


50. AgilePM advocates that projects should do:

  • a) Only the 'big design up front'
  • b) Possibly 'no design up front'
  • c) Sometimes 'enough design up front'
  • d) Just 'enough design up front'


51. Managing an AgilePM project is about enabling constant change while:

  • a) Maintaining business as usual
  • b) Ensuring the customer will fund the changes
  • c) Continuously correcting the course of the project
  • d) Relaxing quality to compensate


52. The AgilePM framework details which of the following to guide practitioners in the adoption of the Philosophy?

  • a) Seven roles which must all be allocated on a one-to-one basis
  • b) Eight working Principles
  • c) Nine techniques which may be omitted as necessary
  • d) Eight Processes which form a process model


53. How does an AgilePM project react when the business changes its mind?

  • a) Resists the change
  • b) Sees it as a fact of life
  • c) Adopts the change if it is easy to accommodate
  • d) Re-starts the project with new Terms of Reference (ToR)


54. Using AgilePM ensures ________ of a fit-for-purpose solution

  • a) an expensive delivery
  • b) on-time delivery
  • c) the users can specify what they want
  • d) the business will never take delivery


55. The eight principles of AgilePM support the:

  • a) Project Management Philosophy
  • b) Process model
  • c) Approach to risk
  • d) Achievement of quality


56. If a team doesn't follow all the principles what will not be achieved?

  • a) The project outcome
  • b) A reliable development team
  • c) Business involvement
  • d) The full benefit


57. 'Build incrementally from firm foundations' is an AgilePM principle which is supported when the team do which of the following?

  • a) Formally re-assess priorities with each delivered increment
  • b) Informally re-assess priorities with each delivered increment
  • c) Ensure all deployed features provide a return on investment within a month of use
  • d) Build from a 'big design up front'


58. The 'Deliver on time' principle enables organisations to achieve which of the following?

  • a) Market opportunities or windows of opportunity
  • b) Market opportunities or legal deadlines
  • c) Maximum return on investment or profit
  • d) No discernible business improvement


59. In AgilePM, the level of quality to be delivered should be agreed at the start. A solution has to be:

  • a) Perfect
  • b) As good as it can be
  • c) Good enough
  • d) The best possible option


60. Ensuring that the members of the team are empowered to take decisions on behalf of those they represent means that AgilePM teams will be following what principle?

  • a) Deliver on time
  • b) Focus on the business need
  • c) Collaborate
  • d) Communicate continuously and clearly


61. Poor communication is often cited as the:

  • a) Reason why projects succeed
  • b) Biggest single cause of project failure
  • c) Essential ingredient for all projects
  • d) The only cause of projects failing to deliver on time


62. When AgilePM advocates a pragmatic approach to change what principle is behind the statement?

  • a) Demonstrate control
  • b) Develop Iteratively
  • c) Focus on the business need
  • d) Communicate continuously and clearly


63. In AgilePM, the level of ________ should be agreed at the start

  • a) resources to be consumed
  • b) risk to be taken
  • c) quality to be delivered
  • d) management intervention


64. Compromising any principle undermines:

  • a) Risk management
  • b) Timely delivery
  • c) AgilePM's basic philosophy
  • d) The cost of the project


65. To contribute to the AgilePM principle, never compromise quality, everything is tested:

  • a) When the team has completed work on the feature
  • b) Before work moves from design to manufacture
  • c) Within the deployment phase
  • d) As early as possible


66. Teams that work in a spirit of active cooperation and commitment will always:

  • a) Deliver a full solution to time
  • b) Outperform groups of individuals working only in loose association
  • c) Learn more from each other than from other teams
  • d) Work better on successive projects


67. When AgilePM advocates first understanding the scope of the business problem to be solved and the proposed solution, but not in such detail that the project becomes paralysed what principle is being advocated?

  • a) Build incrementally from firm foundations
  • b) Develop Iteratively
  • c) Focus on the business need
  • d) Demonstrate control


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