AgilePM Sample Paper 1

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Big thanks to Mirosław Dąbrowski for allowing us to post these questions

AgilePM Foundation Exam Paper

1. AgilePM is focused on ________.

  • a) project realization
  • b) benefits delivery
  • c) value delivery
  • d) style of working

2. AgilePM promotes ________.

  • a) BDUF - Big Design Up Front
  • b) EDUF - Enough Design Up Front
  • c) NDOF - No Design Up Front
  • d) DDUF - Detailed Design Up Front

3. Which questions are appropriate to ask before starting an AgilePM project?

  • a) Simple or Complex Environment?
  • b) Delivering Projects or Changing Service?
  • c) Maximum formality within a structured corporate culture?
  • d) Formalized contact with client / business?

4. AgilePM states that:

  • a) quality and value are same things
  • b) nothing is build ideal for a first time
  • c) people require monitoring and close supervisor
  • d) users cannot define requirements

5. Agile to be successful requires ________?

  • a) on time delivery, according to business priorities
  • b) communication via chat
  • c) acceptance that change must be controlled
  • d) understanding of business requirements and wants

6. Which are characteristics of Self Directed Teams (AgilePM)?

  • a) comply with processes, regardless of outcome
  • b) compete
  • c) continuously look for better ways of working
  • d) focus on low-level objectives

7. Which is an AgilePM principle?

  • a) Focus on Benefits
  • b) Test Continuously
  • c) Clarify and Refine
  • d) Never Compromise Quality

8. How is AgilePM managing Change Management?

  • a) Baseline prototype, at least at the end of Development Timebox
  • b) Manage change in every element in project
  • c) Change is not recommended
  • d) Few, or even no baselines

9. What does AgilePM state as 4 project parameters?

  • a) Time, cost, quality and benefits
  • b) Time, facilities, results, benefits
  • c) Cost, quality, time, features
  • d) Quantity, time, cost, future

10. Self Directed Teams (Agile) ________.

  • a) take directions
  • b) are always collocated
  • c) continuously look for better ways of working
  • d) rigorously comply with procedures

11. Which of these is an AgilePM principle?

  • a) Communicate often
  • b) Communicate verbally
  • c) Communicate formally
  • d) Communicate continuously and clearly

12. One of characteristics of AgilePM ________.

  • a) similar style of management like traditional
  • b) strictly adhering to project plan
  • c) measured by delivery of products (not by activity)
  • d) measured by project plan progress

13. AgilePM ________.

  • a) keeps business and product delivery on track
  • b) sets team objectives, then lets them get on with it
  • c) sustains corporate culture and organizational structure
  • d) manages support office involvement with team

14. In Agile, quality consists of ________.

  • a) product and acceptance criteria
  • b) fit for purpose documentation and good quality product
  • c) good business analysis and effective change management process
  • d) process and solution

15. During Foundation AgilePM recommends about final decision to one of three maintainability levels, which is one of them?

  • a) deliver perfectly, with no errors
  • b) deliver first, re-engineer later
  • c) short-term, strategic solution
  • d) create prototype, test, deploy

16. What AgilePM says about quality and Gateway Reviews?

  • a) Gateway reviews are only for traditional sequential projects
  • b) Gateway reviews are only for programmes
  • c) Gateway reviews are used as a formalized tool to assess any project health
  • d) Gateway reviews should be done only at project start

17. When acceptance criteria for each product in Development Timebox need to be agreed?

  • a) During Feasibility study
  • b) During Foundations
  • c) During Kick-Off
  • d) During Development Timeboxes

18. In which scenarios quality was not managed correctly according to AgilePM?

  • a) The delivered solution fails to meet the business need
  • b) The delivered solution has only core functionality
  • c) The delivered solution has an several minor number of flaws
  • d) The delivered solution has minimal functionality

19. What is an Engineering phase?

  • a) The AgilePM phase used iteratively and incrementally to evolve the solution created during Exploration.
  • b) The AgilePM phase which is used iteratively and incrementally to investigate the detailed requirements and translate them into a form which can then be evolved into a viable solution.
  • c) The AgilePM phase which gives the first opportunity for deciding whether or not the project is viable from a technical or business perspective.
  • d) The AgilePM phase to establish firm and enduring foundations from the three perspectives on a project of business, solution and management.

20. AgilePM is an agile project delivery framework that delivers:

  • a) A good solution to specification
  • b) The right solution at the right time
  • c) Suitable Solutions to cost and scope
  • d) Any solution to quality

21. The aim of all project management is to deliver the right output:

  • a) On time and on budget using the available resources wisely
  • b) To the defined level of functionality agreed at the outset
  • c) Within the constraints of risk imposed by the Business Sponsor
  • d) Whatever the cost, time or resources needed

22. Development Timebox planning represents which level of planning within an AgilePM project?

  • a) Highest
  • b) Best
  • c) Lowest
  • d) Earliest

23. In AgilePM projects how many levels of decision making are normally present?

  • a) Two: steering level and project level
  • b) Three: steering level, project level and team level
  • c) Four: steering level, project level, business level and team level
  • d) Three: project level, solution development level and other

24. In an Agile project it is vital that stakeholder buy into?

  • a) The Products
  • b) The processes
  • c) The Principles
  • d) The Philosophy

25. Early delivery of real benefits to the business is best achieved when key stakeholders understand the business objectives and experience which of the following?

  • a) Empowerment and collaboration
  • b) Indifference and commitment
  • c) Collaboration and autonomy
  • d) Detailed planning and quality assurance

26. Why will everybody concerned with the development team know what is happening?

  • a) They are part of a small team working closely together
  • b) There are regular and full reports by the Team Leader
  • c) Every day begins with a full review of the status of the whole project
  • d) People are given time to inquire of other teams as necessary

27. AgilePM's Project Approach Questionnaire (PAQ) provides a good starting point for:

  • a) Creating a clear understanding of project risks and their mitigation
  • b) Ensuring that the project will be capable of being managed by the Team Leader
  • c) Providing a risk free environment for the project
  • d) Delivering a product which conforms to the specification agreed at the outset

28. There is a perception that risk management is a Project Manager responsibility. However in reality:

  • a) The Business Sponsor should manage all risks
  • b) The whole team should be aware of the risks
  • c) The Project Manager should never undertake the management of risk
  • d) The development team manager should take care of all risks

29. On what should the project team and other significant stakeholders remain focused?

  • a) The business outcome
  • b) The process model
  • c) The major risks
  • d) The people in the development team

30. During Feasibility, a high-level investigation is carried out. Typically, at this stage, there are a:

  • a) Small number of requirements
  • b) Large number of conflicting requirements
  • c) Few requirements which can be fully managed
  • d) Number of features which can safely be left out of this project

31. AgilePM's approach to project management fixes which of the following?

  • a) Scope, quality and risk at the Foundations phase
  • b) Time, cost and quality at the Foundations phase
  • c) Features with all other functions being used as variables
  • d) Time, cost and quality at the Deployment phase

32. AgilePM can also incorporate other agile delivery approaches, such as extreme Programming (XP) and SCRUM to provide the necessary agile management framework to:

  • a) Enable controlled delivery of agile projects
  • b) Facilitate good practice project management
  • c) Provide adequate techniques for all projects
  • d) Ensure all projects are delivered to time and cost

33. Which of the following statements is true about AgilePM team members?

  • a) They do not need to be effective communicators
  • b) They must all be like-minded people
  • c) They should be part of a large team to allow for illness
  • d) They must be able to communicate effectively

34. The solution will be delivered ________, according to the priorities set by the business

  • a) to the proposed cost
  • b) in total as agreed at the outset
  • c) in the agreed timescale
  • d) within achievable criteria

35. AgilePM strongly recommends which roles should use collaborative techniques, such as Facilitated Workshops, for planning?

  • a) Project Managers and Team Leaders
  • b) Project Managers and Technical Coordinators
  • c) Team Leaders and Business Analysts
  • d) Solution Developers and Business Advisors

36. Once the project moves into Exploration and Engineering within Development Timeboxes, enough information will be available to create which of the following?

  • a) A Feasibility Plan
  • b) The detail of the Deployment Plan
  • c) A Deployment Plan for all products of the project
  • d) Timeboxes for the remainder of the project

37. The AgilePM framework is supported by a Project Lifecycle (Process) with which of the following?

  • a) Defined Products, Roles and Responsibilities and recommended Techniques
  • b) A defined process model requiring the use of all processes
  • c) Allowances for the Project Manager to take command of the development team when required
  • d) A set of best practice techniques which permit full testing of each product before deployment

38. Following the wrong or inappropriate approach to project management can do which of the following?

  • a) Provide the project management team with invaluable experience
  • b) Encourage the project sponsor to be involved in the development team
  • c) Improve project performance by a large degree
  • d) Dramatically increase the risks

39. As each increment is completed:

  • a) A new schedule of Timeboxes is created for the next increment
  • b) New plans must be created to account for any loss of productivity
  • c) A new increment schedule is created for the next deployment
  • d) The development team will gather a new set of requirements from the customer

40. How does an AgilePM project view having a fixed deadline?

  • a) As a problem to be overcome
  • b) As a risk that threatens quality
  • c) As a benefit rather than a risk
  • d) As a challenge which may be met

41. At what point in the project must the stakeholders be prepared to accept that change is inevitable?

  • a) Each time the customer changes their mind about what is required
  • b) Whenever there is an easier solution which can be developed
  • c) As they understand more about the solution being developed
  • d) When testing demonstrates that the product is unsuitable for use

42. The stakeholders must be prepared to deliver a:

  • a) Quality product
  • b) Solution which will maximise business benefits
  • c) Product which meets all the required attributes
  • d) Fit-for-purpose solution

43. The AgilePM evolutionary approach to planning avoids which problem?

  • a) Generating an overemphasis on the planning protocol
  • b) Providing a false sense of security for future steps that are still unclear.
  • c) Reliance on success-based planning
  • d) Commitment to activities which cannot be understood until they are finished

44. There will be no need for complex and bureaucratic monitoring systems in a small AgilePM team working with:

  • a) III defined objectives to permit them freedom of expression
  • b) Enough resources of time and cost to complete everything assigned to them
  • c) The command and control approach of the Project Manager
  • d) Clear objectives in Development Timeboxes of short duration

45. Adopting a traditional approach where a project must deliver on a fixed date:

  • a) Reduces risk to meeting the delivery date
  • b) Improves the prospect of the project being able to deliver to cost
  • c) Removes all risk from the project
  • d) Adds a risk since a traditional approach expects to use time as contingency

46. All people involved with the project work ________ to deliver the optimum solution

  • a) collectively
  • b) independently
  • c) interactively
  • d) collaboratively

47. AgilePM should be tailored to suit a project's individual needs within the governance needs set by which authority?

  • a) Quality Assurance
  • b) External suppliers
  • c) Regulatory authorities
  • d) The organisation

48. In AgilePM, plans evolve as the understanding of the:

  • a) Requirements deepens and the level of uncertainty increases.
  • b) Development team skills becomes clearer
  • c) Complexity of the product being developed increases
  • d) Requirements deepens and the level of uncertainty decreases.

49. Most projects have 4 parameters - time, cost, features and quality. Trying to fix all these parameters at the outset is:

  • a) The mechanism by which AgilePM operates
  • b) Appropriate to most types of projects
  • c) Impractical and is the cause of many common problems
  • d) Difficult to achieve without an experienced Project Manager

50. AgilePM advocates that projects should do:

  • a) Only the 'big design up front'
  • b) Possibly 'no design up front'
  • c) Sometimes 'enough design up front'
  • d) Just 'enough design up front'

51. Managing an AgilePM project is about enabling constant change while:

  • a) Maintaining business as usual
  • b) Ensuring the customer will fund the changes
  • c) Continuously correcting the course of the project
  • d) Relaxing quality to compensate

52. The AgilePM framework details which of the following to guide practitioners in the adoption of the Philosophy?

  • a) Seven roles which must all be allocated on a one-to-one basis
  • b) Eight working Principles
  • c) Nine techniques which may be omitted as necessary
  • d) Eight Processes which form a process model

53. How does an AgilePM project react when the business changes its mind?

  • a) Resists the change
  • b) Sees it as a fact of life
  • c) Adopts the change if it is easy to accommodate
  • d) Re-starts the project with new Terms of Reference (ToR)

54. Using AgilePM ensures ________ of a fit-for-purpose solution

  • a) an expensive delivery
  • b) on-time delivery
  • c) the users can specify what they want
  • d) the business will never take delivery

55. The eight principles of AgilePM support the:

  • a) Project Management Philosophy
  • b) Process model
  • c) Approach to risk
  • d) Achievement of quality

56. If a team doesn't follow all the principles what will not be achieved?

  • a) The project outcome
  • b) A reliable development team
  • c) Business involvement
  • d) The full benefit

57. 'Build incrementally from firm foundations' is an AgilePM principle which is supported when the team do which of the following?

  • a) Formally re-assess priorities with each delivered increment
  • b) Informally re-assess priorities with each delivered increment
  • c) Ensure all deployed features provide a return on investment within a month of use
  • d) Build from a 'big design up front'

58. The 'Deliver on time' principle enables organisations to achieve which of the following?

  • a) Market opportunities or windows of opportunity
  • b) Market opportunities or legal deadlines
  • c) Maximum return on investment or profit
  • d) No discernible business improvement

59. In AgilePM, the level of quality to be delivered should be agreed at the start. A solution has to be:

  • a) Perfect
  • b) As good as it can be
  • c) Good enough
  • d) The best possible option

60. Ensuring that the members of the team are empowered to take decisions on behalf of those they represent means that AgilePM teams will be following what principle?

  • a) Deliver on time
  • b) Focus on the business need
  • c) Collaborate
  • d) Communicate continuously and clearly

61. Poor communication is often cited as the:

  • a) Reason why projects succeed
  • b) Biggest single cause of project failure
  • c) Essential ingredient for all projects
  • d) The only cause of projects failing to deliver on time

62. When AgilePM advocates a pragmatic approach to change what principle is behind the statement?

  • a) Demonstrate control
  • b) Develop Iteratively
  • c) Focus on the business need
  • d) Communicate continuously and clearly

63. In AgilePM, the level of ________ should be agreed at the start

  • a) resources to be consumed
  • b) risk to be taken
  • c) quality to be delivered
  • d) management intervention

64. Compromising any principle undermines:

  • a) Risk management
  • b) Timely delivery
  • c) AgilePM's basic philosophy
  • d) The cost of the project

65. To contribute to the AgilePM principle, never compromise quality, everything is tested:

  • a) When the team has completed work on the feature
  • b) Before work moves from design to manufacture
  • c) Within the deployment phase
  • d) As early as possible

66. Teams that work in a spirit of active cooperation and commitment will always:

  • a) Deliver a full solution to time
  • b) Outperform groups of individuals working only in loose association
  • c) Learn more from each other than from other teams
  • d) Work better on successive projects

67. When AgilePM advocates first understanding the scope of the business problem to be solved and the proposed solution, but not in such detail that the project becomes paralysed what principle is being advocated?

  • a) Build incrementally from firm foundations
  • b) Develop Iteratively
  • c) Focus on the business need
  • d) Demonstrate control

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