AgilePM Sample Paper 4

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Big thanks to Mirosław Dąbrowski for allowing us to post these questions

AgilePM Foundation Exam Paper

208. AgilePM identifies roles in three categories. Which is the correct combination?

  • a) Project, Technical Development and Other
  • b) Business, Project and Finance
  • c) Maintenance, Finance and Project
  • d) Project, Solution Development and Other

209. Business Visionary .

  • a) agrees and controls the technical architecture
  • b) defines the business vision for the project
  • c) ensures business resources are available as needed
  • d) resolves technical differences between technical team members

210. Technical Coordinator .

  • a) is performs testing in accordance with Technical Testing Strategy
  • b) is managing technical aspects of the transition of the solution into live use
  • c) is determining the business environments
  • d) is fully integrated with Solution Development Team (SDT)

211. Project Manager ________.

  • a) is brought in on ad-hoc basis as and when needed
  • b) is a catalyst for workshop preparation and communication
  • c) is coaching the SDT when handling difficult situations
  • d) is fully integrated with SDT

212. Business Analyst ________.

  • a) works with team to plan and co-ordinate all aspects of product delivery at detailed level
  • b) is fully available for Project Manager request
  • c) interprets business requirements and translates them into a deployable solution
  • d) ensures business needs are properly analysed and correctly reflected evolution of solution

213.Team Leader .

  • a) is resourcing Specialist Roles as required
  • b) ensures team functions as a whole and meets objectives
  • c) is ideally selected by Steering Committee
  • d) provides command and control, rather than space for creativity

214. Workshop Facilitator is responsible for ________.

  • a) workshop content, not the context
  • b) workshop content and the context
  • c) neither the workshop content and the context
  • d) workshop context, not the content

215. Which of the following lists contains only SDT roles?

  • a) Business Ambassador, Solution Developer, Solution Tester
  • b) Team Leader, Business Visionary, Business Advisor
  • c) Facilitator, Business Advisor, DSDM Coach
  • d) Business Ambassador, Solution Tester, Agile Trainer

216. Which role in AgilePM provides specialist input to solution development or testing?

  • a) Business Ambassador
  • b) Business Visionary
  • c) Business Sponsor
  • d) Business Advisor

217. Which role in AgilePM focuses on NFRs (non-functional requirements) if they are achievable?

  • a) Technical Coordinator
  • b) Teal Leader
  • c) Solution Developer
  • d) Solution Tester

218. It is possible to have Specialist roles at the Project level. A common example of a Project level specialist role would be which of the following?

  • a) Technical specialist
  • b) A second Project Manager
  • c) Operations Coordinator
  • d) Programme strategist

219. The Team Leader works with the team to plan and co-ordinate all aspects of:

  • a) Project and corporate strategy alignment
  • b) Product delivery at the detailed level
  • c) Product delivery at the high level
  • d) Project performance

220. The Workshop Facilitator is responsible for managing the workshop process and is the:

  • a) Sole point of contact for the Solution Development Team (SDT)
  • b) Chairperson for all Daily Stand-Ups
  • c) Catalyst for preparation and communication
  • d) Remover of all roadblocks affecting team performance

221. The Business Analyst is fully integrated with Solution Development Team (SDT) and focuses on which of the following aspects of the project?

  • a) The relationship between the business and technical roles
  • b) Developing the most useful solution possible
  • c) Delivering the benefits after Deployment
  • d) Managing the project to a successful conclusion

222. What role is the catalyst for preparation and communication and should be independent of the outcome to be achieved in the workshop?

  • a) Workshop Facilitator
  • b) Project Manager
  • c) Team Leader
  • d) Solution Developer

223. The ________ interprets business requirements and translates them into a deployable solution that meets functional and non-functional needs

  • a) Business Analyst
  • b) Team Leader
  • c) Solution Developer
  • d) Project Manager

224. Which statement correctly describes how people may be assigned to an AgilePM project team?

  • a) One person may cover two or more roles and a role may be split between two or more people
  • b) Each role should be taken by only one person
  • c) A person delegated to the team may take on only one role
  • d) All team members must be seconded full time to the project

225. Working closely with the rest of the Solution Development Team (SDT), the Business Ambassador:

  • a) Ensures that the business needs are properly analysed
  • b) Replaces the need for a Project Manager
  • c) Guides the evolution of the solution
  • d) Tests every part of the developed solution

226. AgilePM advocates the use of models to improve communication and to create or challenge ideas by:

  • a) Providing fully functioning devices for final inspection
  • b) Revealing the Won't Haves
  • c) Organising a Facilitated Workshop
  • d) Making developing products visible

227. The Project Manager or Business Analyst should challenge requirements if they are not obvious Must Haves but whose responsibility is it to prove a requirement is a Must Have?

  • a) Business Analyst
  • b) Business Visionary
  • c) Solution Developer
  • d) Team Leader

228. In AgilePM, the Business Ambassador knows what is needed, the Solution Developers know how to evolve the product and the Business Ambassador and Business Advisors in collaboration with the Solution Testers are responsible for which of the following?

  • a) Judging whether the resulting product is fit for purpose
  • b) Determining whether the product is ready for testing
  • c) The Prioritised Requirements List
  • d) Facilitated Workshops

229. Facilitated Workshops are a specialised type of meeting, with a clear objective (product), a workshop owner, who needs the outcome of the workshop and is the:

  • a) Driver for it to happen
  • b) Chairperson of all meetings
  • c) Most senior person on the project team
  • d) Intended user of the solution

230. The aim of which iteration of a Timebox is to complete as much of the development work as possible including testing the deliverable(s)?

  • a) Refinement
  • b) Consolidation
  • c) Investigation
  • d) Close-out

231. Solution Quality has to encompass not just customer satisfaction (although this is a key measure), but also:

  • a) Regulatory compliance
  • b) User agreement
  • c) Technical and support concerns
  • d) Architectural coherence

232. In an AgilePM project requirements evolve as the project progresses. As this happens they become which of the following?

  • a) Less detailed
  • b) Highly involved
  • c) Less possible to produce economically
  • d) More detailed

233. Which of the following statements correctly defines what the project team has agreed it will do about the Won't have's?

  • a) Deliver if time and cost permit
  • b) Start a new project to deliver
  • c) Not deliver
  • d) Be impossible to produce and deliver

234. Since AgilePM is all about time-driven solutions, successful AgilePM projects typically focus on delivering a working solution on time, rather than:

  • a) Testing for total compliance
  • b) Waiting for an even better solution late
  • c) Overspending on a more attractive product
  • d) Renegotiating Terms of Reference (ToR)

235. At the lowest level of detail there will be a point where the requirement does not need to be written down. When this point is achieved what should happen to the requirement?

  • a) Prioritised as a Won't Have
  • b) Omitted from the solution being developed
  • c) Built directly into the solution
  • d) Referred to the Business Sponsor for decision making

236. The aim of Investigation is to provide a firm foundation for the work to be carried out during which other iteration of a Timebox?

  • a) Consolidation
  • b) Refinement
  • c) Close-out
  • d) Kick off

237. A Should Have may be differentiated from a Could Have by reviewing the degree of:

  • a) Unhappiness in the organisation by it not being met
  • b) Loss of benefit by it not being met
  • c) Risk generated by it not being met
  • d) Pain caused by it not being met

238. Ask the question 'What happens if this requirement is not met?' If the answer is 'Cancel the project - there is no point in implementing a solution that does not meet this requirement' then it is a:

  • a) Must Have requirement
  • b) Should Have requirement
  • c) Could Have requirement
  • d) Won't Have requirement

239. The emphasis in AgilePM remains on ensuring that any models used enhance communication and are as clearly understood by which of the following?

  • a) Senior management
  • b) The Solution Development Team (SDT)
  • c) Business Ambassador
  • d) The intended audience as by the creators

240. The aim of the Kick-off is to review the Timebox objectives to gain which of the following?

  • a) Full agreement that the solution is achievable
  • b) Business consent that the work can commence
  • c) Common understanding of what is to be achieved
  • d) Certification that the product will meet regulatory requirements

241. The AgilePM approach to requirements involves establishing the requirements early, at a high level during the Feasibility and Foundations Phases, agreeing these with the:

  • a) Team Leader
  • b) Business Sponsor
  • c) Project Manager
  • d) Business Visionary

242. As part of AgilePM's drive for clear and continuous communication what does it offer as having significant benefits in making ideas, situations and options visible?

  • a) Modelling
  • b) Displaying
  • c) Graphing
  • d) Monitoring

243. Every Timebox can be considered as beginning with a Kick-off and ending with:

  • a) Agreement by everyone involved
  • b) Project closure
  • c) Approval of the evolved solution
  • d) A Close-out meeting

244. The cycles of Identify, Plan, Evolve and Review, combined with the structure of the ________, comprising iterations of Investigation, Refinement and Consolidation, ensure that the iterative process is well controlled

  • a) Defined Testing Protocols
  • b) Solution Development Timebox
  • c) Solution Development Team (SDT)
  • d) Project Plan

245. MoSCoW is a technique for helping to understand:

  • a) Geography
  • b) Priorities
  • c) People
  • d) Practices

246. During an AgilePM project, there are key points in the early stages ________ where quality decisions need to be made. The reason for making these decisions early is so that everyone involved in the project clearly understands what is and what is not acceptable.

  • a) limited to Pre-Project
  • b) at the Project Manager's discretion
  • c) up to and including Foundations
  • d) determined by the Business Sponsor

247. The factors which have been found, in practice, to greatly improve the success of Facilitated Workshop are an effective, trained, independent:

  • a) DSDM Coach
  • b) Project Manager
  • c) Workshop Facilitator
  • d) Workshop Owner

248. AgilePM proposes that the Project Manager should make sure that two things are in place at the beginning of each Solution Development Timebox. One is properly formulated Solution Foundations to guide development, what is the other?

  • a) Well defined testing parameters
  • b) Adequate resources for the development
  • c) Properly defined acceptance criteria
  • d) No roadblocks which could hinder iterative development

249. AgilePM advocates clear and continuous communication using rich communication techniques. Which of the following does AgilePM consider to be key aspects of communication?

  • a) Monthly meetings to discuss progress
  • b) The development of models and prototypes
  • c) Detailed plans for the development of features provided by the Project Manager
  • d) Face to face discussions with written up minutes

250. Facilitated Workshops lead to participants feeling more involved and:

  • a) A quicker route to a solution being developed
  • b) More able to leave the project when times are tough
  • c) Project Managers able to manage better
  • d) Committed to the end results

251. The MoSCoW rules have been cast in a way that allows the delivery of the ________ of requirements to be guaranteed

  • a) Minimum Usable Subset
  • b) best Possible Solution
  • c) lowest level
  • d) Maximum Usable Subset

252. In AgilePM, quality is about delivering a solution that is fit for purpose which means delivering a working solution which meets?

  • a) Agreed acceptance criteria
  • b) Customer quality expectations
  • c) 80% of the agreed requirements
  • d) User acceptance testing

253. Which of the following statements correctly defines a non-functional requirement?

  • a) A service that needs to be provided
  • b) How well something is to be carried out
  • c) Functionality that may fail in service without detriment to the business
  • d) A feature that can safely be left out of the deployed solution

254. Provided the team can demonstrate control over what they are doing, it is important that the Project Manager employs what form of management over the team?

  • a) Management by directive
  • b) Control and command
  • c) Manage by objectives
  • d) Management by exception

255. Models and prototypes will help to analyse and present some of the required technical information in:

  • a) Sequential iterations
  • b) Written form
  • c) Manageable increments
  • d) Management stages

256. AgilePM recommends controlling via a cycle of three iterations - Investigation, Refinement, ________

  • a) Testing
  • b) Consolidation
  • c) Deployment
  • d) Rework

257. Iterative development is a process where the delivery of a product results from a repeated cycle of development activity where each execution of the cycle yields a result successively closer to a desired outcome:

  • a) Until a perfect solution is developed
  • b) Resulting in a fully capable product
  • c) Converging on an accurate solution
  • d) Acceptable to the customer

258. Facilitated Workshops are a process in which a neutral facilitator, with no stake in the outcome of the workshop, enables a group to work together to ________, whether that be solving a problem, building a plan, gathering requirements or making a decision.

  • a) develop the solution
  • b) appoint the Business Sponsor
  • c) identify the business strategy
  • d) achieve an agreed goal

259. At its simplest, a requirement is a service, feature or function that the user wishes the solution to:

  • a) Perform or exhibit
  • b) Be capable of showing a return on investment
  • c) Be incapable of performing or exhibiting
  • d) Display

260. AgilePM proposes that participants of a Facilitated Workshop should receive a workshop report very soon after the workshop closes. What timescale is recommended by AgilePM for the distribution of the report?

  • a) Within 48 hours
  • b) After a week
  • c) Before the Workshop formally ends
  • d) Within 4 hours by email

261. Timeboxing is a key technique in AgilePM. It is a well defined process to control the creation of low-level products in an iterative fashion, with:

  • a) Several specific review points
  • b) Automatic correction features built in
  • c) Control exercised by the Business Sponsor
  • d) No need for any reviews

262. Why does a Facilitated Workshop make it possible for everyone to communicate and collaborate effectively with each other and have greater confidence in the result?

  • a) All participants are given written invitations to attend
  • b) All relevant stakeholders are present at the same time
  • c) Full minutes of all discussions are written up and distributed within an hour of the end of a workshop
  • d) Only the most effective people may attend, keeping the discussions short

263. AgilePM advocates that there should be open discussions on Solution Quality from the start of the project, therefore, it suggests that Solution Quality should be part of which management product(s)?

  • a) Business Case
  • b) Increment Review Record
  • c) Timebox Review Record
  • d) All plans

264. How the Exploration and Engineering phases overlap, merge and flip from one to the other is left to a particular project to decide based on the:

  • a) Nature of the solution being created
  • b) Preferences of the Solution Tester alone
  • c) Directives from senior management
  • d) Resources available

265. Earned value analysis is a standard measure used throughout industry to control projects. Its basis is defined by which of the following?

  • a) Measuring the value that has been earned to date in the project
  • b) Analysing the benefits each deployed feature brings to the business
  • c) Understanding the total cost spent by the project to date
  • d) Evaluating the return on investment

266. Initial estimates during Feasibility will be based on the limited information known about the project at this stage, but also on:

  • a) Statistical evidence from wide range of projects
  • b) An average cost of the last few projects undertaken by the team
  • c) The judgement call of the Business Sponsor
  • d) Experience of similar solutions in different projects

267. Objectives of the Feasibility phase are to describe the organisation and:

  • a) Management skills required
  • b) Deployment team needs
  • c) Governance aspects of the project
  • d) Senior management involvement with the solution evolution

268. Allow the people doing the work to estimate:

  • a) No-one else can do it
  • b) They have a vested interest in being right
  • c) Their opinion is always right
  • d) Everyone else is too busy

269. In considering product maintainability one option is to 'deliver first, re-engineer later'. In that case the business priority is to elicit and ________ the required functionality quickly

  • a) develop
  • b) test
  • c) design
  • d) implement

270. Which two functions are used to derive a value of team velocity?

  • a) Effort and output
  • b) Time and cost
  • c) Output and waste
  • d) Planned time and actual time

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